Answer:
=
$
518.01
Explanation:
compound interest formula $A = P*(1+R)^n#
P
=
$
400
,
r
=
.09
,
n
=
3
Substituting the values, we get A =
400
⋅
(
1.09
)
3
=
$
518.01
From my alt account from, https://socratic.org/questions/how-much-would-400-invested-at-9-interest-compounded-continuously-be-worth-after
Hence the value of the expression above are as listed below
<em>f(6+4) = 25</em>
<em>f(6)+f(4) = 20</em>
<em>f(6-4) = 1</em>
<em>f(6)-f(4) = 6</em>
<em>f(6*4) = 67</em>
<em>f(6)*f(4) = 91</em>
<h3>Functions and values</h3>
Given the expression below f(x) = 3x - 5
f(6+4) = f(10) =3(10) - 5
f(6+4) = 25
f(6) = 3(6) - 5
f(6) = 18 - 5 = 13
f(4) = 3(4) - 5
f(4) = 7
f(6)+f(4) = 13+7
f(6)+f(4) = 20
f(6-4) = f(2) =3(2) - 5
f(6-4) = 1
f(6) = 3(6) - 5
f(6) = 18 - 5 = 13
f(4) = 3(4) - 5
f(4) = 7
f(6)-f(4) = 13-7
f(6)-f(4) = 6
f(6*4) = f(24) =3(24) - 5
f(6*4) = 67
f(6) = 3(6) - 5
f(6) = 18 - 5 = 13
f(4) = 3(4) - 5
f(4) = 7
f(6)*f(4) = 13*7
f(6)*f(4) = 91
Learn more on function and values here: brainly.com/question/2284360
#SPJ1
Answer:
400%
Step-by-step explanation:
We can write a percent proportion:
600/x = 150/100
a:b = c:d
a and d are linked and b and c are linked. So if a is missing, you would do (b*c)/d to get a, if b was missing, you would do (a*d)/c to get b, etc.
So over here we do
(600*100)/150 = 60,000/150 = 400, so x = 400, so that means it's 400% of 150
We can also use benchmark fractions which I find much easier:
100% of 150 is 150.
So 200% of 150 is 300
So 300% of 150 is 450
And 400% of 140 is 600
Every time it increases by 100%, it also increases by 150 on the other side, which makes sense
Let me know if you have any questions.
Step-by-step explanation:
83P (E)=17-17P (E),
P (E)=17/100=0.17
