The best way to explain it is that 37 ÷ 6 is 6 remainder 1 so the answer is C) 6 1/6
Answer: 49.
It's 49 minutes
Step-by-step explanation:
I don't feel like explaining. It's 49 minutes.
You know that a perfect square trinomial is given by square of first term, twice the product of first and last terms and square of second term
So we have x^2 that is square of x, 2x that is twice the product of x*1, the second term shoulf be 1, that is square of 1
So your answer would be 1
If you try (x+1)^2 = x^2+2x+1
Answer:
4
Step-by-step explanation:
WA times AX = YA x YZ
8x5=40
because they have to equal each other we just have to divide 40 by 10
40/10=4 so segment YZ=4
