d = dimes
q = quarters
d+q = 38 coins
q=38-d
0.25q + 0.10d=6.95
0.25(38-d)+0.10d=6.95
9.5-0.25d+0.10d=6.95
-015d=-2.55
d=-2.55/-0.15 = 17
q=38-17 =21
21*0.25 =5.25
17*0.10 = 1.70
5.25+1.70 = 6.95
she had 21 quarters and 17 dimes
Answer:
Danica made 11 dollars per hour.
Step-by-step explanation:
Divide- 440/40=11
Check 11*40=440
She made 11 dollars per hour.
Answer:
the right answer is continuous
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
n ≥ 6.24/x
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that :
Amount spent is atleast $6.24
Let price spent = p
p ≥ $6.24
If cost of granola bar = x
The number of granola bars, n purchased will be :
n ≥ 6.24/x
Since cost of granola bar isn't given, we represent it as x.
Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
