6=2(y+2) i need help

Mathematics

2 answers:

kotegsom [21]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

y=1

Step-by-step explanation:

Snowcat [4.5K]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

y=1

Step-by-step explanation:

6=2(y+2)

6=2y+4

2=2y

y=1

You might be interested in

Jenna saves $2,500 per year in an account that earns 10% interest per year, compounded annually. Jenna will have saved in 30 yea

Vsevolod [243]

$~~~~~~~~~~~~\textit{Future Value of an ordinary annuity}\\ ~~~~~~~~~~~~(\textit{payments at the end of the period}) \\\\ A=pymnt\left[ \cfrac{\left( 1+\frac{r}{n} \right)^{nt}-1}{\frac{r}{n}} \right]$

$\begin{cases} A= \begin{array}{llll} \textit{accumulated amount}\\ \end{array}\\ pymnt=\textit{periodic payments}\dotfill &2500\\ r=rate\to 10\%\to \frac{10}{100}\dotfill &0.1\\ n= \begin{array}{llll} \textit{times it compounds per year}\\ \textit{annually, thus once} \end{array}\dotfill &1\\ t=years\dotfill &30 \end{cases}$

$A=2500\left[ \cfrac{\left( 1+\frac{0.1}{1} \right)^{1\cdot 30}-1}{\frac{0.1}{1}} \right]\implies A=2500\left[ \cfrac{(1.01)^{30}-1}{0.1} \right] \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill\\\\ ~\hfill A\approx 411235.06~\hfill$

4 0

2 years ago

Anyone know how to prove these are equal to one another? I also need all the steps.

IrinaVladis [17]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

it can be simplified to $\frac{sec \theta}{cot\theta+tan\theta} =sin\theta$ . if you multiply each side by the denominator, it becomes $sec\theta=\frac{sin^2\theta}{cos\theta} + cos\theta$ since $tan\theta=\frac{sin\theta}{cos\theta}$ and cotan is the reciprocal of that. Because $sec\theta=\frac{1}{cos\theta}$ so multiplying each side gives $1=sin^2\theta+cos^2\theta$ , and $sin^2\theta+cos^2\theta$ is equal to 1.