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Sphinxa [80]
2 years ago
13

If the European subsidiary of a U.S. firm has net exposed assets of 750,000 Euros, and the euro drops in value from $1.30/euro t

o $1.20/ Euro the U.S. firm has a translation:__________
a. gain of $75,000
b. loss of $75,000
c. gain of $65,000
d. loss of 546,923
Business
1 answer:
Natalija [7]2 years ago
6 0
The correct answer is:

b. loss of $75,000
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A $1,000 face value bond has a coupon rate of 7 percent, a market price of $989.40, and 10 years left to maturity. Interest is p
dlinn [17]

Answer:

4.95%    

Explanation:

For computing the yield to maturity when expressed in real terms, first we have to find out the yield to maturity by applying the RATE formula that is shown in the attachment

Given that,  

Present value = $989.40

Future value or Face value = $1,000  

PMT = 1,000 × 7% ÷ 2 = $35

NPER = 10 years × 2 = 20 years

The formula is shown below:  

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)  

The present value come in negative  

So, after solving this,  the yield to maturity is 7.15%    

Now in real terms, it would be

= 7.15% - 2.2%

= 4.95%    

7 0
2 years ago
On October 17, Nickle Company purchased a building and a plot of land for $589,200. The building was valued at $312,276 while th
Travka [436]

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below:

Building A/c Dr $312,276

Land A/c Dr       $276,924

        To Cash A/c             $61,900

        To Notes payable A/c $527,300

(Being the purchase of building and land for cash and note payable is recorded)

The computation of the notes payable is shown below:

= Total purchase value - cash paid

= $589,200 - $61,900

= $527,300

3 0
3 years ago
Assume that interest rates on 20-year Treasury and corporate bonds with different ratings, all of which are noncallable, are as
Elina [12.6K]

Answer:

The question is missing the options which are below:

A Real risk-free rate differences.  

B Tax effects.  

C Default risk differences.  

D Maturity risk differences.  

E Inflation differences.  

The correct answer is option C,default risk differences.

Explanation:

Default risk is the increase in return given to an investor to compensate the investor for the likely losses that may arise due to the inability of the borrower to make funds available to the investor on the maturity date or even in required amount.

Different debt instruments have different default risk depending on their credit rating as rated by international rating agencies.Such rating is a function of many factors,which includes:

Balance sheet position

Profitability

Liquidity strength of the company

Macro-economic factors and some others.

Liquidity refers to the ability of the company to settle obligations such as repayment of bonds and interest  when due.

Invariably,liquidity has a higher impact in determining credit rating as well as default risk of an instrument.

3 0
3 years ago
What was the four-firm concentration ratio in the u.s. soda market in 2009?
Igoryamba
<span>the four-firm concentration ratio in the u.s. soda market in 2009 are as follows Coca cola -42.7% Pepsi - 30.8% Dr.pepper snapple group - 15.3 % Royal crown - 2.1 % From the above data we can clearly find that Coke has an uphill battle—they have huge amounts of marketing muscle, financial resources.Against Coke and Pepsi, guerrilla warfare is the only thing that might work.</span>
8 0
3 years ago
Phillips Equipment has 80,000 bonds outstanding that are selling at par. Bonds with similar characteristics are yielding 7.5%. T
ollegr [7]

Answer:

A) 10.15%

Explanation:

Cost of equity (Re) = 14.06% or 0.1406

cost of preferred stock (Rp) = 7/65 = 0.10769

cost of bonds (Rb) = 7.5% or 0.075

 outstanding shares = 2.5 million shares x $42 = $105 million

bonds outstanding = $1,000 x 80,000 bonds = $80 million

preferred stock = $65 x 750,000 = $48.75 million

corporate tax rate = 38% or 0.38

total market value of equity + debt (in millions) = $105 + $48.75 + $80 = $233.75

WACC = [(outstanding shares / total market value) x Re] + [(preferred stock / total market value) x Rp] + {[(bonds outstanding / total market value) x Rb] x (1 - tax rate)}

WACC = [($105m / $233.75m) x 0.1406] + [($48.75m / $233.75m) x 0.10769] + {[($80m / $233.75m) x 0.075] x (1 - 0.38)}

WACC = 0.06316 + 0.02246 + 0.01591 = 0.10153 or 10.15%

6 0
3 years ago
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