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Natasha_Volkova [10]
3 years ago
14

What is the binomial expansion of (x+1)^8

Mathematics
1 answer:
solmaris [256]3 years ago
5 0
The answer is in the photo

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Jessica gets her favorite shade of purple paint by mixing 1/3
strojnjashka [21]

Answer:

8 cups of blue and 12 cups of red

Step-by-step explanation:

Combine 1/3 c of blue + 1/2 c of red = 5/6 c of purple.

(5/6)x = 20

 

x = (6/5)20 = 24

this is applied to each of the above measurements to show that you need 8 c of blue + 12 c of red.

8 0
3 years ago
it takes 12 minutes to answer 5 homework questions how many minutes will it take to answer 42 questions?
ratelena [41]

Answer:

100.8 minuts

Step-by-step explanation:

12 question = 5 min

1 question = 12/5 min

42 question = (12/5)  * 42 min

                    = 100.8 min

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can someone help me with this?
mr Goodwill [35]
If you look closely you'll see that x can take on any real value here.  On the other hand, y can equal -4 (maximum) or any real number smaller than -4.
Translate this information into interval notation.
7 0
3 years ago
Find the missing angle. Round to the nearest 10th.
nataly862011 [7]

Answer:

38.1

Step-by-step explanation:

SOHCAH<u>TOA</u><u> </u>

use tangent (opposite over adjacent)

tan(40)= 32/x

x=32/tan(40)

plug into calculator

3 0
3 years ago
Annie is a basketball player who makes, on average, 65% of her freethrows. Assume each shot is independent and the probability o
Kamila [148]

Answer:

a) For this case we need that she fails the first 3 throws and the last one would be successful, so then if p represent the probability of success and 1-p the probability of fail we have this:

(1-p)^3 p = (1-0.65)^3 (0.65)= 0.0279

b) "=1-BINOM.DIST(99,140,0.65,TRUE)"

P(X \geq 100) = 1-P(X

c) \mu = np = 140*0.65= 91

\sigma = \sqrt{np(1-p)}= \sqrt{140*0.65(1-0.65)}=5.644

And we want this probability:

P(X \geq 100) = 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Part a

For this case we need that she fails the first 3 throws and the last one would be successful, so then if p represent the probability of success and 1-p the probability of fail we have this:

(1-p)^3 p = (1-0.65)^3 (0.65)= 0.0279

Part b

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=140, p=0.65)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 100) = 1-P(X

And we can use the following excel code:

"=1-BINOM.DIST(99,140,0.65,TRUE)"

P(X \geq 100) = 1-P(X

Part c

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

np=140*0.65=91 \geq 10

n(1-p)=140*(1-0.65)=49 \geq 10

So then we can use the normal approximation and we can find the mean and deviation like this:

\mu = np = 140*0.65= 91

\sigma = \sqrt{np(1-p)}= \sqrt{140*0.65(1-0.65)}=5.644

And we want this probability:

P(X \geq 100) = 1-P(X

5 0
3 years ago
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