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exis [7]
3 years ago
15

Convert 4(cos(150°) + isin(150) into rectangular form.

Mathematics
2 answers:
olasank [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

(-2 sqrt(3), 2)

Step-by-step explanation:

It is looking for a coordinate on a rectangular plane.

4(cos(150)+<em>i</em>sin(150))

x = rcosθ; y = rsinθ

For X:

x = 4cos(150);

x = 4 * -sqrt(3)/2; \

x = -2sqrt(3)

For Y:

y = 4sin(150)

y = 4 * 1/2

y = 2

Then you just put it as (x, y) with out <em>i</em>

(2sqrt(3), 2)

I also took the test on a p e x

salantis [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The rectangular form of 4[cos(150^{o})+i sin (150^{o})] is -2\sqrt{3}+2i.

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An initial amount of $1300 is invested in an account at an interest rate of 1% per year, compounded continuously. Find the amoun
jeka57 [31]

Answer:

65, given the amount of $1300 times 0.01 percent times 5 years would equal $65 over 5 years, to break it down, multiply 1300 times 0.01 times 5.

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Simplify (5+11i) - (16-4i) +9i.
lisabon 2012 [21]

Answer:

5+11i-16-4i+9i

5-16+11i-4i+9i

-11+7i+9i

-11+16i

Step-by-step explanation:

First, get the like terms together. Then add or subtract until its simplified. Simplified is -11+16i.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can someone please help?
liq [111]

Answer:

f(x) = (x + 4)^2 - 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Parent function: f(x) = x^2

To show this in a way that may look more familiar, f(x) = 1(x - 0)^2 + 0

Vertex form: f(x) = a(x - h)^2 + k

We know a = 1, because the slope is the same as the parent function.

Vertex: (h,k)

We can see that the vertex of the graph is (-4, -5)

So h = -4 and k = -5

Now all we need to do is plug the variables into our equation.

f(x) = a(x - h)^2 + k

f(x) = 1(x + 4)^2 - 5

f(x) = (x + 4)^2 - 5

5 0
3 years ago
Joshua invested $750 in an account paying an interest rate of
Maslowich
Due to the difference in the interest rate and the quarterly compounding, Joshua will have $212.24 more than Josiah.
Step-by-step explanation:
Giving the following information:
Joshua:
Initial investment (PV)= $750
Interest rate (i)= 0.0341/4= 0.008525
Number of periods (n)= 18*4= 72 quarters
Josiah:
Initial investment (PV)= $750
Interest rate (i)= 0.0285
Number of periods (n)= 18 years
To calculate the future value of each one, we need to use the following formula:
FV= PV*(1 + i)^n
Joshua:
FV= 750*(1.008525^72)
FV= $1,381.98
Josiah:
FV= 750*(1.0285^18)
FV= $1,169.74
Due to the difference in the interest rate and the quarterly compounding, Joshua will have $212.24 more than Josiah.
5 0
2 years ago
Explain two ways you could solve 24=6(-3+x)
Bumek [7]
You could either divide the 6 on each side and have 4=-3+x, so x=7, or you could distribute the 6 into the expression, so 24=-18+6x. Then 42=6x, and x=7.
7 0
3 years ago
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