Answer:
predetermined overhead allocation rate is $228 per hour
Explanation:
given data
Estimated over head costs = $8,000,000
Estimated machine hours = 35,000
actual machine hours = 31,000
to find out
predetermined overhead allocation rate
solution
we know that predetermined overhead allocation rate is express as
predetermined overhead allocation rate = 
put here value
predetermined overhead allocation rate = 
predetermined overhead allocation rate = $228.571
so predetermined overhead allocation rate is $228 per hour
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
As we know that
According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula
Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)
And, the market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return is also known as the market risk premium
As we can see that the Alcoa contains high beta as compared to Hormel Foods so the Alcoa has a higher equity cost of capital
And, the higher rate is
= (Excess return of the market) × (Alcoa beta - Hormel foods beta)
= (3%) × (1.85 - 0.39)
= 3% × 1.46
= 4.38%
Answer: B - Internal Analysis
Explanation: Internal Analysis involves a company looking inwards to determine it's competencies, strength, weakness and advantages. Internal anaylsis usually incorporates a SWOT analysis.
A SWOT analysis is the analysis of the strength, weakness, opportunities and threats of the organisation.
An external analysis involves analysing the market place and economy to identify trends and put measures in place to take advantage of current trends to ensure profit maximization.
Competitior anaylsis involves analysising the competitions of an organisation to identify threats and opportunities so as to maximaise profit
Client advantage can arise from building a loyal customer base that always patronise the business or having a company been one of the few producers of a product.
In the case of Gems Corps, they looked inwards and made improvements to how the company is run.
Therefore,Gems Corps made use of Internal Analysis.
I hope my answer helps.
Goodluck
Answer:
DR Cash ..............................................................$ 176,000
CR Sales Revenue................................................................$149,600
CR Deferred Revenue..........................................................$26,400
Explanation:
Revenue should only be recorded when earned and as the 6 month technical support can be sold separately, it is revenue that has not be earned yet as the 6 months have not elapsed. This will therefore need to be recorded as Deferred revenue.
Sold alone, the revenue is more than when they are sold together so use the standalone price to find out the revenue when sold together by proportionality.
Sales revenue = 153,000/180,000 * 176,000
= $149,600
Deferred Revenue = 27,000/180,000 * 176,000
= $26,400
The correct answer for this statement would be TRUE. In the Operational Risk Management or ORM, this involves the careful decision making and should be systematic when managing hazards that endanger naval resources and one of the steps is implement controls which include engineering c<span>ontrols, administrative controls, and personal protective equipment. Hope this helps.</span>