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sveta [45]
3 years ago
6

CAN SOMEONE JUST ANSWER THIS QUESTION

Mathematics
2 answers:
Katyanochek1 [597]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

There are three numbers less then four (1, 2, and 3) and two multiples of nine (9 and 18) from 1-25. That would make the fraction 5/25 before simplifying to 1/5.

kramer3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 3 numbers of less than 4 (1, 2 and 3) and there are 2 multiples of 9 (9 and 18). So there are 5 favourable outcomes and 25 possible outcomes. So you put 5/25 and cancel down, which makes 1/5. I hope this helps!

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ASAP <br> HELP<br> NEEDED<br> WITH<br> THIS<br> QUESTION
dalvyx [7]

Answer:

EF is the best vector described to intersect both point s

4 0
3 years ago
One student can paint a wall in 16 minutes. Another student can paint the same wall in 24 minutes. Working together, about how l
Mazyrski [523]
Let's look at work rates per minute.

Together they can paint the wall in x minutes.
Working together, in 1 minute, they do 1/x of the job.

The student who paints the wall in 16 minutes does 1/16 of the job in 1 minute.
The student who paints the wall in 24 minutes does 1/24 of the job in 1 minute.
Together, they do 1/16 + 1/24 of the job in 1 minute, but from above, we see that together, they do 1/x of the job in 1 minute, so 1/16 + 1/24 must equal 1/x. That gives us our equation.

1/16 + 1/24 = 1/x

1/16 * 3/3 + 1/24 * 2/2 = 1/x

3/48 + 2/48 = 1/x

5/48 = 1/x

x = 48/5 = 9.6

Answer: It takes them 9.6 minutes, or about 10 minutes to do the job together.


5 0
3 years ago
Find AC. Show Your Work.​
kolbaska11 [484]

Check the picture below.

7 0
2 years ago
Use the fact that the mean of a geometric distribution is μ= 1 p and the variance is σ2= q p2. A daily number lottery chooses th
butalik [34]

Answer:

a). The mean = 1000

     The variance = 999,000

     The standard deviation = 999.4999

b). 1000 times , loss

Step-by-step explanation:

The mean of geometric distribution is given as , $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

And the variance is given by, $\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

Given : $p=\frac{1}{1000}$

             = 0.001

The formulae of mean and variance are :

$\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

a). Mean =   $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

              = $\mu = \frac{1}{0.001}$

              = 1000

  Variance =   $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

                  = $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-0.001}{0.001^2}$

                           = 999,000

   The standard deviation is determined by the root of the variance.

    $\sigma = \sqrt{\sigma^2}$

        = $\sqrt{999,000}$ = 999.4999

b). We expect to have play lottery 1000  times to win, because the mean in part (a) is 1000.

When we win the profit is 500 - 1 = 499

When we lose, the profit is -1

Expected value of the mean μ is the summation of a product of each of the possibility x with the probability P(x).

$\mu=\Sigma\ x\ P(x)= 499 \times 0.001+(-1) \times (1-0.001)$

  = $ 0.50

Since the answer is negative, we are expected to make a loss.

4 0
3 years ago
Solve and type in a different form by using the given theorems of logarithms
scoray [572]

\log\left(\frac{10}{y}\right) = \log(10) - \log(y)

The general rule is

\log\left(\frac{A}{B}\right) = \log(A) - \log(B)

Other log rules are

\log(AB) = \log(A) + \log(B)

B\log(A) = \log(A^B)

4 0
3 years ago
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