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FromTheMoon [43]
3 years ago
14

After Duncan’s murder how are Macbeth and Lady Macbeth alike

English
2 answers:
jek_recluse [69]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Macbeth and Lady Macbeth were alike after Duncan's murder in a way that both of their hands were stained with Duncan's blood.

Explanation:

'Macbeth' is a tragedy written by William Shakespeare.

There are similarities and differences between Macbeth and Lady Macbeth in the play. After King Duncan was murdered by Macbeth, one thing that they both shared in common was that they both were guilty of Duncan's murder. They both knew that they were doing wrong yet they committed the wrong deed. Both of their hands were soaked in the blood of Duncan. Macbeth's hands were soaked in Duncan's blood because he murdered him and Lady Macbeth's hands were stained with blood because she tried to remove any proof pointing to Macbeth for the murder of Duncan by cleaning the stain on knife with guards clothes.

This blood stain is what makes Macbeth remorseful immediately after he committed crime whereas the blood draws Lady Macbeth to insanity duue to unbearable guilt of murder.

beks73 [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

They were both responsible for his death and also wanted power

Explanation:

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Answer:

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Answer:

Personally, I disagree and agree.

Explanation:

"Love overshadows hate dramatically, since it is the passion of the protaganist and since Shakespeare has lavished his most moving poetry upon the love scenes."

Basically, what he's saying here is that love is more powerful than hate because Juliet/Romeo are so passionate about it. Furthermore, Shakespeare's most famous lines often come from the love scenes in Romeo and Juliet.

Love is not more powerful than hate. In fact, these two emotions are about the same level of intensity. They both require focus on a person/multiple people, they both require energy, and they both are in general, just powerful feelings that have been demonstrated through history. One can be stronger than the other. It just depends on the situation.

Secondly, his reasoning makes sense. Love, in this instance, overcomes the family feud that the two protagionists' families have. So, love does overpower hate in this story. However, take that with a grain of salt, because the love that happens ends in a tragedy. Both protaganists die because they, arguably, loved a little too much.

Thirdly, I don't agree with the statement "and since Shakespeare has lavished his most moving poetry upon the love scenes." Sure, his most famous lines are from these scenes, but that shouldn't be a reason to why love overpowers hate. It should just be an example of what Shakespeare wanted to achieve. He wanted to show that in this instance, love can be more powerful than hate. Does that mean it is in every situation? No.

Those are my ways of seeing it, I hope you get a good grade and I hope you understand Shakespeare, because it is really hard to. Good luck!

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