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Kisachek [45]
2 years ago
9

PLEASE HELP PLEASE PLEASE

Mathematics
2 answers:
Monica [59]2 years ago
8 0

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  f(x) = {0, x≤ 1; 4(x -1), 1 < x ≤ 6; 2.5x +5, x > 6}

Step-by-step explanation:

The hourly rate gives you the slope of the function in the relevant interval. The added constant is chosen to make the function continuous.

That is, at 1 hour, the charge is zero, so the next segment (4x+b) must have a value of b that makes the charge for 1 hour be zero. That will be b=-4.

Likewise, for more than 6 hours, the charge will be (2.5x+b), where b is chosen to make this expression match the charge for 6 hours. We know the charge for 6 hours is 4(6) -4 = 20, so b must match ...

  2.5(6) +b = 20

  b = 20 -15 = 5

The segment from 1 to 6 hours is f(x) = 4x -4.

The segment for more than 6 hours is f(x) = 2.5x +5.

_____

<em>Alternate solution</em>

Since the charge is zero for the first hour, the first segment could be considered to be charging only for hours after the first. That is, an alternate expression for hours 1–6 could be 4(x -1). Likewise, we could say the expression for hours more than 6 is 2.5(x +2).

Marta_Voda [28]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The top-left box should be 4x, and the bottom-left box should be 2.50x.

Step-by-step explanation:

Because the cost from 2 hours to 6 hours is 4 dollars per hour, it is 4x.

Likewise, because the cost over 6 hours is 2.50 dollars per hour, the cost is 2.50x.

Everything else seems fine.

Hope this helps!

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Dafna11 [192]

Answer:

-164x^2

Step-by-step explanation:

The Perimeter of a square is 4s where s is the length of 1 side.

So P=4(-41x^2) 41*4=164 ----> P=-164x^2

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Solve C = 2πr (solve for "r")<br> C = 15
Jobisdone [24]
C = 2 pi r

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3 years ago
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Which point is located at the origin?<br><br> A<br> B<br> C<br> D
Alina [70]
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4 0
2 years ago
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Suppose a manufacturer finds that 95% of their production is normal but the final 5% has one or more flaws. Each flawed good has
RUDIKE [14]

Answer:

1)    

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW        0.01             0.95

2) 0.04 and $0.04

3) 0.025 and $0.025

4) 0.015 and $0.015

5) 0.95 and $0.95

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

financial cost = $1

p(flaw) = 0.05  

p(type 1 flaw / flaw) = 80% = 0.8

p(type 2 flaw / flaw) = 50% = 0.5

p( type 1 and 2 flaw/flaw) = 30% = 0.30

1) Bivariate Table

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

p( only 1 flow) = 0.04 - 0.015 = 0.025

p( only 2 flow) =  0.025 - 0.015 = 0.01

THEREFORE  the Bivariate Table;

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW       0.01              0.95

2) probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.04 = $0.04

3)  probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.025 = $0.025

4) probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 * 0.015 = $0.015

5) probability and expectations of no flaws?

Probability of no flaw = P(No flaw) =95% =  0.95

Expected financial cost saved the firm per good due to no flaw

= $1 × 0.95 = $0.95

5 0
3 years ago
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