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tresset_1 [31]
2 years ago
13

In a paint factory, an old conveyer line has filled 50 barrels of paint, and is filling more at a rate of 2 barrels per minute.

A worker just switched on a newer line that can fill 12 barrels per minute. In a little while, the two lines will have filled an equal number of barrels. How many barrels will each line have filled?
Mathematics
1 answer:
bezimeni [28]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

60 barrels

Step-by-step explanation:

y = # of barrels; x = minutes

worker: y = 12x

old line: y = 2x + 50

12x = 2x + 50

10x = 50

x = 5

y = 12(5) = 60

y = 2(5) + 50 = 60

60 barrels

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Help please help help please please please
AnnZ [28]

Answer:

C. \frac{5}{4}

D. \frac{6}{7}

Step-by-step explanation:

C. 2 -  \frac{12}{16}

= 2 -  \frac{3}{4}

=  \frac{8 - 3}{4}

=  \frac{5}{4}

D. \frac{20}{22}  \times  \frac{33}{35}

=  \frac{10}{11}  \times  \frac{33}{35}

= 10 \times  \frac{3}{35}

= 2 \times  \frac{3}{7}

=  \frac{6}{7}

3 0
2 years ago
Suppose that a box contains r red balls and w white balls. Suppose also that balls are drawn from the box one at a time, at rand
dybincka [34]

Answer: Part a) P(a)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}

part b)P(b)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}+\frac{r}{\binom{r+w}{r}}

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability is calculated as follows:

We have proability of any event E = P(E)=\frac{Favourablecases}{TotalCases}

For part a)

Probability that a red ball is drawn in first attempt = P(E_{1})=\frac{r}{r+w}

Probability that a red ball is drawn in second attempt=P(E_{2})=\frac{r-1}{r+w-1}

Probability that a red ball is drawn in third attempt = P(E_{3})=\frac{r-2}{r+w-1}

Generalising this result

Probability that a red ball is drawn in [tex}i^{th}[/tex] attempt = P(E_{i})=\frac{r-i}{r+w-i}

Thus the probability that events E_{1},E_{2}....E_{i} occur in succession is

P(E)=P(E_{1})\times P(E_{2})\times P(E_{3})\times ...

Thus P(E)=\frac{r}{r+w}\times \frac{r-1}{r+w-1}\times \frac{r-2}{r+w-2}\times ...\times \frac{1}{w}\\\\P(E)=\frac{r!}{(r+w)!}\times (w-1)!

Thus our probability becomes

P(E)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}

Part b)

The event " r red balls are drawn before 2 whites are drawn" can happen in 2 ways

1) 'r' red balls are drawn before 2 white balls are drawn with probability same as calculated for part a.

2) exactly 1 white ball is drawn in between 'r' draws then a red ball again at (r+1)^{th} draw

We have to calculate probability of part 2 as we have already calculated probability of part 1.

For part 2 we have to figure out how many ways are there to draw a white ball among (r) red balls which is obtained by permutations of 1 white ball among (r) red balls which equals \binom{r}{r-1}

Thus the probability becomes P(E_i)=\frac{\binom{r}{r-1}}{\binom{r+w}{r}}=\frac{r}{\binom{r+w}{r}}

Thus required probability of case b becomes P(E)+ P(E_{i})

= P(b)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}+\frac{r}{\binom{r+w}{r}}\\\\

7 0
3 years ago
4 divided by what = 9
vfiekz [6]
It 36 hope i helped!!


Assume answer as x;

x÷4=9 or x4=9

Multiply 9 with 4;

x=9×4

x=36

3 0
3 years ago
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Aleks04 [339]

Answer: 11

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
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What is the value of x?
N76 [4]

Answer:

i think it would be 55

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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