P1 returns goods previously purchased on credit from P2.

a. Long-term bonds have fewer risks than short-term bonds. b. Long-term bonds have more risks associated with them, and bring in

garri49 [273]

Complete Question:

What are the benefits of a long-term bond over a short-term bond?

Answer:

c. While long-term bonds have more risks associated with them, they have the potential to bring in higher returns for the initial investment.

Explanation:

A bond can be defined as a debt or fixed investment security, in which a bondholder (investor or creditor) loans an amount of money to the bond issuer (government or corporations) for a specific period of time. The bond issuer are expected to return the principal (face value) at maturity with an agreed upon interest (coupon), which are paid at fixed intervals.

Bonds are generally debts, which may be floated in different ways with respect to the issuer of the bond and its type. Bonds are used by government and corporate institutions to borrow money with interest and they also have to pay for the face value of the bonds at maturity.

Bonds are classified into two (2) main categories and these are;

I. Long-term bonds: they usually spread over a long period of time and as such locking the money of an investor down while availing them a higher interest rate. Also, they are considered to be more riskier than shorter bonds.

II. Short-term bonds: this type of bond mature quickly and as such paying the investor's principal on time. It covers a period of one to five years maximum in duration.

Hence, the benefits of a long-term bond over a short-term bond is that, while long-term bonds have more risks associated with them, they have the potential to bring in higher returns for the initial investment.

5 0

2 years ago

People holding money in anticipation that bond yields will rise is an example of

Anton [14]

Money demand for transactions

6 0

2 years ago

applied vs. actual manufacturing overhead davis manufacturing corporation applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of 150% of

Mashcka [7]

Answer:

Subapplication of 22,500

journal entry:

WIP 4,500 debit

finished goods 2,250 debit

COGS 15,750 debit

factory overhead 22,500 credit

Explanation:

Direct Labor cost during the year:

60,000 + 30,000 + 210,000 = 300,000 direct labor

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<u>Applied overhead:</u>

cost driver x predetermined rate

300,000 x 150% = 450,000

Actual overhead: 472,500

Subapplication of 22,500

as this is a significant amount we must adjust the WIP inventory, cost of goods sold and fnished goods inventory

to know the adjustment on each account we calcualte each account percentage:

300,000 --> 22,500

60,000 --> 60,000/300,000 x 22,500 = 4,500 endingWIP

30,000 --> 30,000/300,000 x 22,500 = 2,250 finished goods

210,000--> 210,000/300,000 x 22,500 = 15,750 COGS

we do the adjuting entry to increase overhead and transfer into each concept

8 0

3 years ago

A company has a $4,000, 270-day, 6%, note payable recorded on its books which was dated July 2, 2013. The interest expense is pa

tensa zangetsu [6.8K]

Answer:

Interest expense accured = $121.33 (

Explanation:

The exact number of days from July 2 through December 31, 2013 is 182 days.

The accrued interest (182/360) x $4,000 x 6% = $121.33

5 0

2 years ago

Hillsong Inc. manufactures snowsuits. Hillsong is considering purchasing a new sewing machine at a cost of $2.45 million. Its ex

maw [93]

Answer:

NPV = 37,599 Negative

Explanation:

We can calculate the NPV of the new sewing machine by deducting the Present value of future cash inflows by Investment

Initial investment = Machine cost + Training cost - Salvage value

Initial investment = 2,450,000 + 85,000 - 250,000

Initial investment = 2,285,000

Year DF(9%) Present Value

1 Cash inflow 390,000 x 0.917 $357,798

2 Cash inflow 400,000 x 0.842 $336,672

3 Cash inflow 411,000 x 0.772 $317,367

4 Cash inflow 426,000 x 0.708 $301,789

5 Cash inflow 334,100 x 0.650 $217,077 (434,100 - 100,000)

6 Cash inflow 435,000 x 0.596 $259,376

7 Cash inflow 436,000 x 0.547 $238,507

7 Salvage value 400,000 x 0.547 $218,814

Present Value of cash inflow $2,247,401

Initial investment $2,285,000

NPV ($2,247,401 - $2,285,000) (37,599)

Conclusion: Hillsong should not purchase the new machine as the NPV of the machine is negative

4 0

2 years ago