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Brrunno [24]
2 years ago
5

What do balloon mortgage and ARM have in common?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Nina [5.8K]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Both are subject to current market rate after the initial rate period.

Step-by-step explanation:

VladimirAG [237]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

In other respects, a balloon mortgage resembles an adjustable rate mortgage (ARM) with an initial rate period equal to the balloon period. A 7-year balloon, for example, is usually compared to a 7-year ARM. Both have a fixed-rate for 7 years, after which the rate will be adjusted.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Find the indefinite integral using the substitution x = 10 sin(θ). (Use C for the constant of integration.) 1 (100 − x2)3/2 dx
soldi70 [24.7K]

Answer:

The indefinite integral

= \frac{1}{100} ˣ \frac{x}{\sqrt{100-x^{2} } } ⁺ C

Step-by-step explanation:

x= 10sinθ

dx = 10cosθdθ

the step-to-step explanation is in the attachment

3 0
2 years ago
-5x+10>-15 help please
nexus9112 [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

-5x + 10 > -15 is your original equation.

You need to isolate the x variable.

Start by subtracting 10.

-5x > -25

x > 5

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following values are in the range of the function graphed below
expeople1 [14]

Answer:

Range of the given function = -4

Step-by-step explanation:

Range is the set of output values.

In a graph, the set of x-values of the function is know as domain and the set of y-values of the function is known as range.

In the graph red line represents the function.

From the given graph it is clear that the function is defined from x=-1 to x=4.

For each value of x the y-value is -4.

Hence, the range of the function is -4.

4 0
3 years ago
A hotel claims that 8585​% of its customers are very satisfied with its service. complete parts a through d below based on a ran
jek_recluse [69]
We can solve this problem using the binomial distribution. A binomial distribution<span> can be thought of as a success or failure outcome in an experiment or survey that is repeated multiple times. 
</span>Probability function of binomial distribution has the following form:
P= \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!} p^k(1-p)^{n-k}
p represents the probability of each choice we want. k is the number of choices we want and n is the total number of choices.
In our case p=0.85, k=5 and n=6. 
We can now calculate the answer:
P= \frac{6!}{5!(6-5)!} 0.85^5(1-0.85)^{6-5}=0.39
The probability is 39%.
.
7 0
3 years ago
What is the area of the semi circle if the diameter is 10 cm
Fudgin [204]

Answer:

39.25 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for a circle is pi x radius x radius.

So to get the radius, you multiply 10 and 1/2.  You should get 5.  Then you multiply 5 by 5.  You should get 25.

Then you multiply 3.14 and 25.  You should get 78.5.

The last step is to divide 2 by 78.5. You should get 39.25

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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