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Nitella [24]
3 years ago
13

I need help please!:D

Mathematics
2 answers:
Verizon [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

5/10 = 1/2

4/12 = 1/3

3/9 = 1/3

i believe these are the answers

Sergeeva-Olga [200]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

5/10= 1/2            4/12=1/3

3/9= 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

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Can anyone help with this question (quickly please) thanks
aniked [119]

Answer:

88

Step-by-step explanation:

You're trying to find the circumference of a circle. The general formula is: pi•D. D is the Diameter. 22/7 is the fraction version of Pi, so just do 3.14x28 and you will get your answer. 88

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X/2 + y/5 = 1 solve for y
vfiekz [6]
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Help please (question is kinda easy and its timed so i need help asap)
AveGali [126]

Option 1: y = 5x+5 is the correct answer

Step-by-step explanation:

We can put the values of x in each option one by one and then compare the output to find the best option

So,

<u>For y = 5x+5:</u>

Putting x=1,2,3,4,5...

y = 5(0)+5 = 0+5 = 5\\y = 5(1) +5 = 5+5 = 10\\y = 5(2) + 5 = 10+5 = 15\\y = 5(3) + 5 = 15+5 = 20

The values of x in the function are producing the output values of y, which means that the function for values given in the table is defined by: y= 5x+5

Hence,

Option 1: y = 5x+5 is the correct answer

Keywords: Functions, variables

Learn more about functions at:

  • brainly.com/question/12896802
  • brainly.com/question/12973601

#LearnwithBrainly

6 0
3 years ago
A casino wants to offer a new game with (potentially) spectacular prizes:The player flips a fair coin until they flip heads.The
MissTica

Answer:

The casino should charge for this game at least $1 to break even.

Step-by-step explanation:

We can define the prize function as

M(n)=2^{ n+1}

where M is the prize money and n is the number of tails in continous flips.

The probability of n consecutive tails can be calculated as p^n=0.5^n. The probaility of getting a head after the n consecutive tails is p=0.5, so the probability of having n consecutive tails and a head is p^{n+1}=0.5^{n+1}

Then we can calculate the expected value of M as

E(M)=p_i*M_i=(0.5)^{n+1}*2^{n+1}=1^{n+1}=1

The expected money prize for this game is $1, so the casino should charge to play at least $1 to break even.

4 0
4 years ago
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