Answer:
![\frac{10}{21}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B10%7D%7B21%7D)
Step-by-step explanation:
Total number of balls = ![(2 + 3 + 2) = 7](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%282%20%2B%203%20%2B%202%29%20%3D%207)
Let S be the sample space.
Then, n(S) = Number of ways of drawing 2 balls out of 7
= ⁷ C₂
= ![\frac{(7*6)}{(2*1)}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B%287%2A6%29%7D%7B%282%2A1%29%7D)
=21
Let E = Event of drawing 2 balls, none of which is blue.
∴n(E)= Number of ways of drawing 2 balls out of (2 + 3) balls.
= ⁵ C₂
= ![\frac{(5*4)}{(2*1)}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B%285%2A4%29%7D%7B%282%2A1%29%7D)
= 10
∴ P (E) = ![\frac{n(E)}{n(S)} =\frac{10}{21}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7Bn%28E%29%7D%7Bn%28S%29%7D%20%3D%5Cfrac%7B10%7D%7B21%7D)
Answer:
$11.25
Step-by-step explanation:
1.5×7.5=11.25
Yes, because 1+3 is 4*2 is 8, and and on the other side 1+1 is 2*5 is 10 the 10-2 is 8 so 8=8
Answer:
Her total loss was £25
Step-by-step explanation:
Here, we want to get the value of total loss
What we have to do here is to subtract the amount made from the running cost
From the question, we have the amount made as;
£1.40 * 50 = £70
So we have the loss as,
70-95 = -£25