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Naddika [18.5K]
3 years ago
5

Please help me with this as soon as possible!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
bearhunter [10]3 years ago
5 0
The answer is D, but since the other person answered first please give them brainliest, their description was perfect.
I hope you find good answers on further questions!
Pie3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

D. 48

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's first find the probability that in the first 40 trials, exactly two of the coins are heads.

We know that there were 16 such outcomes of 2 heads and 1 tail, and there was a total of 40 possible outcomes. So our probability is:

16 / 40 = 4 / 10 = 2/5

We can assume that the probability that in the next 120 trials, about 2/5 of the outcomes will also be 2 heads and 1 tail. So, we multiply 2/5 by 120 to figure out that exact number:

(2/5) * 120 = 240/5 = 48

The answer is thus D.

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Explanation below, but in short, a fraction means to divide the top/left number by the bottom/right number. It means to divide 5 by 6.


5/6 = 0.83333333...

Why is this? This is because a fraction simply means to divide the numerator (the top/left number) by the denominator (bottom/right number). So 5 ÷ 6 = 0.83333333... in decimal form.

4 0
3 years ago
Help pls!!!how to solve it​
Mariana [72]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

First, we distribute.

16q - 10 = 4q

Then, we combine like terms.

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Finally, we divide -12 on both sides.

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