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Nana76 [90]
2 years ago
6

Vogel Corporation's cost of goods manufactured last month was $136,000. The beginning finished goods inventory was $35,000 and t

he ending finished goods inventory was $48,000. Overhead was overapplied by $6,000. Any underapplied or overapplied manufacturing overhead is closed out to cost of goods sold.How much is the adjusted cost of goods sold on the Schedule of Cost of Goods Sold?
Business
1 answer:
rosijanka [135]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

117,000 adjusted COGS

Explanation:

$$Beginning Inventory + Manufactured = Ending Inventory + COGS

35,000 + 136,000 = 48,000 + COGS

COGS = 123,000 before adjustment

overapplied overhead for 6,000

This means the applied is higher than actual expenses, the cost is 6,000 lower we must decrease the COGS

123,000 - 6,000 = 117,000 adjusted COGS

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A coupon bond that pays interest of 4% annually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 5 years, and is selling today at $785. The
jarptica [38.1K]

Answer:

Actual Yiel to maturity is 9.3%

Explanation:

Yield to maturity is the annual rate of return that an investor receives if a bond bond is held until the maturity.

Face value = F = $1,000

Coupon payment = $1,000 x 4% = $40

Selling price = P = $785

Number of payment = n = 5 years

Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ (F + P ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $40 + ( $1,000 - $785 ) / 5 ] / [ ( 1,000 + $785 ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $40 + $43 ] / $892.5  = $83 /$892.5 = 0.0645 = 0.093%

3 0
3 years ago
A company purchased a piece of equipment for $50,000 and the equipment has an expected useful life of five years. Its residual v
Simora [160]

Answer:

$12,000

Explanation:

Given that,

Cost of equipment = $50,000

Expected useful life = 5 years

Estimated residual value = $4,000

Depreciation refers to the fall in the value of fixed assets with the passage of time.

Here, we are using double-declining-balance depreciation method,

Firstly, we are calculating the straight line depreciation rate as follows:

= (100% ÷ useful life)

= (100% ÷ 5)

= 20%

So, the double-declining depreciation rate is calculated by multiplying the straight line depreciation rate by 2. It is calculated as follows:

= 2 × straight line depreciation rate

= 2 × 20%

= 40%

First year depreciation is calculated as follows:

= Double-declining depreciation rate × Cost of equipment

= 40% × $50,000

= $20,000

Therefore, the amount of depreciation expense for the second year is calculated as follows:

= Double-declining depreciation rate × (Cost of equipment - First year depreciation)

= 40% × ($50,000 - $20,000)

= 0.4 × $30,000

= $12,000

5 0
3 years ago
When four infineon technologies executives participated in an international conspiracy to fix prices for computer memory chips,
marshall27 [118]

When four infineon technologies executives participated in an international conspiracy to fix prices for computer memory chips, they were acting with other firms as a cartel.

Given an incomplete sentence related to infineon technologies.

We are required to fill the sentence by an appropriate term.

We can fill the sentence with "a cartel".

A cartel is basically a formal agreement among firms in an oligopolistic industry. Members of cartel may agree on such matters as prices, total industry output, market shares, allocation of customers, allocation of territories, bid-rigging, establishment of common sales agencies, and the division of profits or combination of these. It is basically a group of people who are collected to complete an objective.

Hence when four infineon technologies executives participated in an international conspiracy to fix prices for computer memory chips, they were acting with other firms as a cartel.

Learn more about cartel at brainly.com/question/12015868

#SPJ4

7 0
1 year ago
7. Valuing semiannual coupon bonds Bonds often pay a coupon twice a year. For the valuation of bonds that make semiannual paymen
Maurinko [17]

Answer:

A = $698,494.97 is the right answer.

And Assuming that interest rates remain constant, the T-note’s price is expected to Increase.

Explanation:

A. $698,494.97

B. $593,720.72

C. $838,193.96

D. $440,051.83

Solution:

First we need to see which among the four options is the correct value.

For that we need to find the rate:

Rate = Yield to Maturity/2

Yield to Maturity = 11%

So,

Rate = 11/2

Rate = 5.5%

Now, we need to find the Nper ( Number of periods for the loan)

Nper = 5 x 2 = 10 years.

Nper = 10 years

Now, we need to find PMT which is a financial function used to calculate the amount to be paid for the loan based on constant payments and interest.

PMT = (3%/2) x par value

PMT = (3%/2)x 1,000,000

PMT = 15000

Now, For future value, we have par value.

So,

Par Value = Future Value = FV = 1,000,000

Now, we have to find the PV = Present Value or the price of the bond.

For this we need to use PV function on excel.

Formula:

Price = - PV(Rate, Nper, PMT, FV)

Plugging the values in Excel like this and we get:

Price = -PV (5.5%,10,15000,1000000)

Price = $698,494.97

Hence, A = $698,494.97 is the right answer.

And Assuming that interest rates remain constant, the T-note’s price is expected to Increase.

4 0
2 years ago
Who do i write the check to for speeding ticket?
uysha [10]
The court which you were sentenced to go to. thats where i wrote mine to
4 0
3 years ago
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