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guapka [62]
3 years ago
14

Please answer I will mark brainliest

Mathematics
2 answers:
andriy [413]3 years ago
4 0
The answer is A i believe
erica [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: I believe it is A

Step-by-step explanation:

Terms are groups of variables and numbers seperated by only + or --.

as for factors, they are multiplers. As long as they mutiply something your fine.

Sorry if its a really bad explanation.

Have a nice day :)

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A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a
Ronch [10]

Answer:

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows.

This means that n = 12

She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that p = 0.3

Compute the probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

2 or less sold, which is:

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.3)^{0}.(0.7)^{12} = 0.0138

P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.3)^{1}.(0.7)^{11} = 0.0712

P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.1678

Then

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0138 + 0.0712 + 0.1678 = 0.2528

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

8 0
3 years ago
#54 Simplify and write the answers using positive exponents only.
kramer
Gg easy

remember
(x^m)/(x^n)=x^(m-n)
and
(x^m)^n=x^(mn)
and
(xyz)^m=(x^m)(y^m)(z^m)
and
(m/n)^a=(m^a)/(n^a)
and
x^-n=1/(x^n)

so
( \frac{6mn^{-2}}{3m^{-1}n^2} )^{-3}=
( \frac{6}{3} )^{-3}( \frac{m}{m^{-1}} )^{-3}( \frac{n^{-2}}{n^2} )^{-3}=
(2^{-3})((m^2)^{-3})((n^{-4})^{-3})=
( \frac{1}{2^3})(m^{-6})(n^{12})=
( \frac{1}{8} )( \frac{1}{m^6})(n^{12})=
\frac{n^{12}}{8m^6}

8 0
3 years ago
Translate into an algebraic expressions: 120 is increased by d% and increased by 25% . What is the result ?
anastassius [24]

Answer:

The result is 150 + 1.5d

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to translate the wordings into algebraic expression.

Firstly, we increase 120 by d%

d% = d/100

So increasing 120 by d % means;

120 + (d/100 * 120)

= 120 + 1.2d

Then increase this by 25%

= (120 + 1.2d) + 25/100(120 + 1.2d)

= 120 + 1.2d + (120+1.2d)/4

= 120 + 1.2d + 30 + 0.3d

= 120 + 30 + 1.2d + 0.3d

= 150 + 1.5d

3 0
3 years ago
An expression is shown 342 / 8 What is the quotient expressed as a fraction?
tekilochka [14]
/ also means division so the answer is 42.75
5 0
4 years ago
A fair spinner has 11 equal sections: 4 red, 4 blue and 3 green.
Darina [25.2K]

Answer:

24/121

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of an event happening is the ratio of the number of possible outcome to the number of total outcome.

The probability of not getting green then green

= rg or bg

Where r is the probability of getting red, g is the probability of green and b is the probability of blue.

= 4/11 * 3/11 + 4/11 * 3/11

= 12/121 + 12/121

= 24/121

4 0
3 years ago
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