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3 years ago

What is the most accurate method for preventing adverse effects associated with the use of digoxin?

1 answer:

6 0

<span>Digoxin is commonly associated with adverse side effects which are mainly unpreventable as it these effects are inevitable. The best method to preventing the majority of these would to avoid eating foods with high-fibre before or after you take Digoxin tablets as fibre tends to trigger these adverse side effects. Foods with high-fibre would mean products such as nutritional supplements and cereals, so it would be best to take Digoxin a few after a meal and not eat for a few hours after,</span>

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A focused differentiation strategy requires offering unique features that fulfill the demands of a narrow market. All of the fol

Dmitrij [34]

Answer:

d. Cinnabon

Explanation:

Unlike the rest, Cinnabon <em>does not</em> have a focus strategy because it has other competitors in market.

Note that it specialises in baking, coffee and frozen drinks, services that are also offered by other competitors.

3 0

3 years ago

Overhead Variance (Over- or Underapplied), Closing to Cost of Goods Sold

Bogdan [553]

Answer:

This question has two requirements answer of each requiremnt is given below.

Dispose of the overhead variance by adjusting Cost of Goods Sold. Adjusted COGS $____

Applied Overhead = 532,000 * 80% =$ 425,600

This show that overhead are over apllied, so

Adjusted COGS = $1,890,000 - (425,600 -423,600)

= $ 1,888,000

Calculate the overhead variance for the year. $____

Overhead variance = Applied Overhead - Actual Overhead

= 425,600 -423,600

= $ 2000 (Favorable variance)

4 0

3 years ago

What is the var of a 10 million portfolio with normally distributed returns at the 5% VaR? Assume the expected return is 13% and

Kitty [74]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

1. VaR = Expected return - z × Standard deviation

= 13% - 1.645 × 20%

= -19.90%

Therefore the option a is the correct answer.

2) Now the correlation coefficient is

Variance of the portfolio = (weight of A × Standard deviation 1)^2 + (weight of B × Standard deviation 2)^2 + (2 × weight of A × weight of B × Standard deviation 1 × Standard deviation 2 × correlation 1 and 2)

3.80% = (60% × 24%)^2 + (40% × 18%)^2 + (2 × 60% × 40% × 24% × 18% × correlation 1 and 2)

So the correlation is 0.583

8 0

3 years ago

26. Currently, Bruner Inc.'s bonds sell for $1,250. They pay a $120 annual coupon, have a 15-year maturity, and a $1,000 par val

maksim [4K]

Answer:

2.11%

Explanation:

From the information given; we use the Excel spreadsheet to compute the difference between this bond's YTM(Yield to maturity) and its YTC(Yield to call).

From the diagram; we will see that the

YTM(Yield to maturity) = 8.91%

YTC(Yield to call).= 6.81%

Therefore the difference between this bond's YTM and its YTC = (8.91 - 6.81)%

the difference between this bond's YTM and its YTC = 2.11%

7 0

3 years ago

The capital allocation line can be described as the:.

juin [17]

Answer:

What Is the Capital Allocation Line (CAL)? The capital allocation line (CAL), also known as the capital market link (CML), is a line created on a graph of all possible combinations of risk-free and risky assets. The graph displays the return investors might possibly earn by assuming a certain level of risk with their investment.

Explanation:

3 0

2 years ago