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Archy [21]
2 years ago
5

A standard clock has a 1-cm hour hand and a 2-cm minute hand. At 12 pm, they are both pointing in the same direction and the dis

tance between the ends of the hands is 1 cm. What is the exact distance between the ends of the hands at 2 pm
Mathematics
1 answer:
Levart [38]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The distance between the hands is √(3)cm ≈ 1.73cm.

Step-by-step explanation:

In a standard clock, the angle between every number is 30°, therefore the angle between 12 and 2 will be 30° x 2 = 60°.

Looking at the diagram, to find c we can make use of our cosine formula

c² = a² + b² –2abCos(C°)

a = 2, b = 1 and C° = 60°

Therefore we have:

c² = 2² + 1² –2 x 2 x 1 x cos(60°) =

c² = 4 + 1 – 4 x 0.5 =

c² = 5 – 2 =

c² = 3

c = √(3) ≈ 1.73

Therefore, the distance between the hands is √(3)cm ≈ 1.73cm.

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Note: Enter your answer and show all the steps that you use to solve this problem in the space provided.
yan [13]

Answer:

  138.16 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

The surface area SA of the cone is the sum of the base area B and the lateral area LA. The lateral area is half the product of the circumference and the slant height. The radius is half the diameter, so is 4 inches.

  SA = B + LA

  = πr² + (1/2)(2πrh) . . . . where h is the slant height

  = (πr)(r +h)

Filling in the numbers, you have ...

  SA = (3.14)(4 in)(4 in + 7 in) = 3.14×(44 in²) = 138.16 in²

7 0
3 years ago
Please solve for a need help
Anna71 [15]

The two lines with arrows are parallel, which means angles A and B are supplementary.

So we have

A + B = 180º

(6<em>x</em> - 35)º + (3<em>x</em> + 53)º = 180º

(9<em>x</em> + 18)º = 180º

(9<em>x</em>)º = 162º

<em>x</em> = 18

This means angle A has measure

A = (6<em>x</em> - 35)º = 73º

6 0
3 years ago
Simplify: (4xy)^0 please help
katrin2010 [14]
I believe that would be 1
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can you help me with number 6? <br> Confused abit <br> Please
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

You can see the three diagram attached. Each link is labeled with the probability: you have probability 1/6 that a six is rolled, and 5/6 that it is not rolled.


To answer the questions, find the path that brings you to the desired outcome, and multiply all the labels you meet.


First question:

To get three sixes, you have to choose the left path at each roll. The probability is always 1/6, so the answer is


\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{6} = \frac{1}{6^3}


Second question:

To get no sixes, you have to choose the right path at each roll. The probability is always 5/6, so the answer is


\frac{5}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} = \frac{5^3}{6^3}


Third question:

To get exactly one six, it can either be the first, second or third roll.


In all cases, you have to choose the left path once and the right path twice: left-right-right mean that you get the six in the first roll, right-left-right means that you get the six in the second roll, right-right-left means that you get the six in the third roll.


In every case, the left turn has probability 1/6, and the right turn has probability 5/6. The probability of each combination is thus


\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} = \frac{5^2}{6^3}


And since there are three of these combinations, The answer is


3\frac{5^2}{6^3}


Fourth question:

Since the question suggests to use what we already achieved, let's do it: having at least one six is the complementary event of having no sixes at all. If an event has probability p, its complementary has probability 1-p. So, since the probability of no sixes is known, the probability of at least one six is


1 - \frac{5^3}{6^3}

4 0
3 years ago
Look at the data on the line plot.
Sliva [168]

Answer:

<u>it is 0.4</u>

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
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