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coldgirl [10]
3 years ago
13

20% of the basketball team is injured if there is a total of 15 players on the team how many have been injured​

Mathematics
1 answer:
pav-90 [236]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

3 players

Step-by-step explanation:

15 times 20% = 3.

You can check yourself if you'd like.

HOPE THIS HELPS :)

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equation of a line in slo[e-intercept form given the slope = 6 and it passes through the point (1, 8)
Luba_88 [7]

Answer:

math way

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Almanah is baking cookies. She has a bag that contains 300 cookies. If she wants to bake a batch of 40 cookies with 6 chocolate
Mademuasel [1]

Answer:

Did you mean she has a bag that contains 300 chips? if so yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

If each cookie gets 6 chips and she makes 40 cookies, you can use multiplication to see.

6*40=240

She has plenty, 60, of chocolate chips left over

6 0
3 years ago
To convert 2/3 into an equivalent fraction with a denominator of 18, we could multiply only the denominator of 2/3 by.
Naya [18.7K]

Answer:

the answer is true

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Given that f (x)=2x+5 and g(x)=x-7 solve for f (g (x)) when x=-3
Alexeev081 [22]
2(-3-7)+5= <span>2(-10)+5= -20 + 5= -15

-15 is your final answer</span>
7 0
3 years ago
3. Assume that the likelihood of a child under the age of ten watching PBS is 0.76. Three children are
natta225 [31]

Using the binomial distribution, the probabilities are given as follows:

a) 0.4159 = 41.59%.

b) 0.5610 = 56.10%.

c) 0.8549 = 85.49%.

<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>

The formula is:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

The parameters are:

  • x is the number of successes.
  • n is the number of trials.
  • p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

For this problem, the values of the parameters are:

n = 3, p = 0.76.

Item a:

The probability is P(X = 2), hence:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 2) = C_{3,2}.(0.76)^{2}.(0.24)^{1} = 0.4159

Item b:

The probability is P(X < 3), hence:

P(X < 3) = 1 - P(X = 3)

In which:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 3) = C_{3,3}.(0.76)^{3}.(0.24)^{0} = 0.4390

Then:

P(X < 3) = 1 - P(X = 3) = 1 - 0.4390 = 0.5610 = 56.10%.

Item c:

The probability is:

P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.4159 + 0.4390 = 0.8549

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
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