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2 years ago

the link between home currency value of a firm's assets and liabilities and exchange rate fluctuations is

Business

1 answer:

faltersainse [42]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Asset exposure

Explanation:

Asset exposure shows the difference that lies between the exposed assets and the exposed liabilities. Here the long in currency is when the exposed assets are more than its liabilities and on the other hand the short in currency is when the exposed assets are less than its liabilities

In addition to this, the linking that need to be done between the firm asset and liabilities of home currency and the fluctuation in exchange rate would be also known as asset exposure

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PA5.

daser333 [38]

Answer:

Using weighted average method

Statement of equivalent units

Material Conversion

Units Units

Units transferred out 19,000 19,000

Add: Closing work-in-progress 6,000 1,800

Average divisor  25,000  20,800

Computation of cost per unit

Material Conversion

$ $

Cost of beginning work-in-progress 10,000 19,000

Cost added 50,000 112,248

Total cost  60,000  131,248

Material cost per unit = $60,000

25,000 units

= $2.40 per unit

Conversion cost per unit = $131,248

20,800 units

= $6.31 per unit

Value of units transferred out

Material = 19,000 x $2.40 = $45,600

Conversion = 19,000 x $6.31 = $119,890

Value of closing work-in-progress

Material = 6,000 x $2.40 = $14,400

Conversion = 1,800 x $6.31 = 11,358

Explanation:

In this case, we need to prepare statement of equivalent units in order to ascertain the average divisor. The average divisor is the sum of units transferred out and closing work-in-progress. Then, we will obtain the total cost of material and conversion, which is the aggregate of cost of opening work-in-progress and cost of units added. We will also calculate the cost per unit, which is total cost of material and conversion divided by average divisor. Finally, the units transferred and ending work-in-progress will be valued at unit cost of material and conversion.

8 0

3 years ago

Which of the following is not included in GDP?the payments for a chiropractor's servicescash income paid to a day laborer that i

Scilla [17]

Answer:

cash income paid to a day laborer that is not reported to the tax authorities

Explanation:

GDP stands for Gross domestic product. It is the monetary value of all finished goods and services made within a country during a specific period.

It is calculated as GDP = private consumption + gross investment + government investment + government spending + (exports – imports).

Hence, cash income paid to a day laborer that is not reported to the tax authorities will not be included in GDP

8 0

3 years ago

"On January 1, MM Co. borrows $360,000 cash from a bank and in return signs an 8% installment note for five annual payments of $

scoray [572]

Answer:

1.Jan 01 Dr Cash 360,000

Cr Notes payable 340,000

2.Interest expense 28,800

Principal Reduction 61,364

Explanation:

MM Co.

1 . Journal entry

Since MM Co. borrows $360,000 cash on January 1 from a bank this means we have to

Debit Cash with the amounts of money he borrowed which is $360,000 and Credit Notes Payable with the same amount.

Jan 01 Dr Cash 360,000

Cr Notes payable 340,000

2. Calculation of the amount goes toward interest expense and Principal reduction

Interest expense 28,800

(360,000*8%)

Principal Reduction 61,364

(90,164-28,800)

5 0

3 years ago

Your employer emailed a question and to all employees to gather data on employee satisfaction what type of research is your comp

Dovator [93]

Answer:

Primary

Explanation:

8 0

2 years ago

You want to purchase a new motorcycle that costs $29,800. The most you can pay each month is $510 over the life of the 78-month

TiliK225 [7]

Answer:20,5369%

Explanation:We know APR is the Annual Percentage Rate that is paid over a loan. If we are to pay during 78 months at most $510 each month, then we could pay in total 510*78=$39780 in the course of the six years and a half that constitute the 78 months. This means that yearly we can pay in interest $39780/6,5=$6120 each year, this represents the interest over the loaned money, i.e., the $29800. Then the APR is

$\\\frac{6120}{29800} =20,5369\%$ annualy or 1,71141% monthly and it is the highest APR you could afford, 20.5369%

4 0

2 years ago