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timama [110]
2 years ago
5

Help ASAP please elaborate on your answer as well.

Mathematics
1 answer:
miskamm [114]2 years ago
5 0
Yes so the corner is yes so you do that and align
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50POINTS!!
pickupchik [31]
If the insurance pays $2,000, but the test itself cost $2,750, you simply subtract.
$2,750-$2,000= $750
Therefore Bobby has to pay $750
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Let the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie have a Poisson distribution. We want the probability that a cookie
ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

\lambda \geq 6.63835

Step-by-step explanation:

The Poisson Distribution is "a discrete probability distribution that expresses the probability of a given number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space if these events occur with a known constant mean rate and independently of the time since the last event".

Let X the random variable that represent the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie. We know that X \sim Poisson(\lambda)

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter \lambda

E(X)=\mu =\lambda

On this case we are interested on the probability of having at least two chocolate chips, and using the complement rule we have this:

P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^0}{0!}=e^{-\lambda}

P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^1}{1!}=\lambda e^{-\lambda}

And replacing we have this:

P(X\geq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)]=1-[e^{-\lambda} +\lambda e^{-\lambda}[]

P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)

And we want this probability that at least of 99%, so we can set upt the following inequality:

P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)\geq 0.99

And now we can solve for \lambda

0.01 \geq e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)

Applying natural log on both sides we have:

ln(0.01) \geq ln(e^{-\lambda}+ln(1+\lambda)

ln(0.01) \geq -\lambda+ln(1+\lambda)

\lambda-ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01) \geq 0

Thats a no linear equation but if we use a numerical method like the Newthon raphson Method or the Jacobi method we find a good point of estimate for the solution.

Using the Newthon Raphson method, we apply this formula:

x_{n+1}=x_n -\frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}

Where :

f(x_n)=\lambda -ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01)

f'(x_n)=1-\frac{1}{1+\lambda}

Iterating as shown on the figure attached we find a final solution given by:

\lambda \geq 6.63835

4 0
3 years ago
Billy-Bob has a piggy-bank filled with nickels and quarters totaling $11.90.
Lunna [17]

Answer:

x = 33

y = 41

Step-by-step explanation:

GIven

x: number of nickels

y: number of quarters

A nickel = $0.05

A quarter = $0.25

then we have the system of equations

0.05*x + 0.25*y = 11.90

x + y = 74

Which can be solved applying any of known methods. Then, the solution is

x = 33

y = 41

hope this was helpful.

4 0
2 years ago
Someone help me out please
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

Answer:

142.5

Step-by-step explanation:

π×11²×135/360

= 363π/8

= 142.5 (rounded to the nearest tenth)

Answered by GAUTHMATH

6 0
2 years ago
Please help i know this is kind of easy but I am having a hard time with it unfortunately​
Len [333]

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

y= 60(2)+10

y=130

y=65(2)

y=130

8 0
3 years ago
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