Answer:
Payback period = 3.5 years
Explanation:
Net income                           $50,000.00
Add: Depreciation expense<u> $42,000.00</u>
Net annual cash inflow     <u>  $92,000.00</u>
Payback period = Initial investment / Annual cash inflows 
= $324,000 / $92,000 
= 3.5 years
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
92.86%
Explanation:
Debt-to-income ratio is a comparison or personal debts against income.  It is used to assess an individual ability to accommodate more debts. 
The formula for for calculating Debt to income is 
Debt to income is   <u> Total of Monthly Debt Payments  </u>
    	Gross Monthly Income         
For Affan, Total debts are $450 + $375 + $50+ $100 =$ 975
Gross income is not given , we use net income which is $1,050
Debt to income ration =  $975/$1050
=  0.92857 x 100
= 92.86%
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer: The present value of the new drug is $19.33 million
We follow these steps to arrive at the answer:
Expected Revenues from the drug in year 1(P)   $2 million
Growth Rate (g)                                                        2% p.a.
No. of years  (n)                                                      17 years   
Discount rate (r)                                                        9% p.a.
Since the revenues are expected to grow at a constant rate of 2% p.a, we can treat this series of cash flows as a <u>growing annuity. </u>
We calculate the Present Value of a growing annuity with the following formula:
![PV = \frac{P}{r-g}*\left [ 1- \left (\frac{1+g}{1+r}\right)^{n}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=PV%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7BP%7D%7Br-g%7D%2A%5Cleft%20%5B%201-%20%5Cleft%20%28%5Cfrac%7B1%2Bg%7D%7B1%2Br%7D%5Cright%29%5E%7Bn%7D%5Cright%5D)
Substituting the values we get,
![PV = \frac{2}{0.09-0.02}*\left [ 1- \left (\frac{1+0.02}{1+0.09}\right)^{17}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=PV%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7B0.09-0.02%7D%2A%5Cleft%20%5B%201-%20%5Cleft%20%28%5Cfrac%7B1%2B0.02%7D%7B1%2B0.09%7D%5Cright%29%5E%7B17%7D%5Cright%5D)
![PV = \frac{2}{0.07}*\left [1- 0.323558233\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=PV%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7B0.07%7D%2A%5Cleft%20%5B1-%200.323558233%5Cright%5D)


 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
$11,650
Explanation:
The adjusted cash balance per bank at August 31 2022 is calculated as;
= Cash balance per bank - Outstanding checks + Deposits in transits
Given that;
Cash balance per bank = $10,690
Outstanding checks = $840
Deposits in transits = $1,800
= $10,690 - $840 + $1,800
= $11,650
Therefore the adjusted cash balance per bank is $11,650. It means that the cash balance per bank statement has to be adjusted to accommodate outstanding checks and deposits in transit. For outstanding checks , they are checks that have not yet been found on the bank statement , while deposits in transit are those deposits, that have not yet been found or appear on the bank statement.
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer: Foreclosure
Foreclosure refers to a bank’s act of taking possession of a mortgaged property when the mortgage holder fails to make the monthly mortgage payments.  
Foreclosure occurs when a home owner does not pay his monthly loan instalments for three consecutive months.
It is a legal process in which the home owner loses the ownership of the property and the banker gets the right to sell off the property in order to make up the loss on account of non payment.