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Fudgin [204]
3 years ago
6

PLEASE HELP

Mathematics
1 answer:
Softa [21]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

I would say 2 is the correct answer because I know the chances are low, but not exactly zero, and 3 is wrong because it is definitely not more than half

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Add -4 + 2\3. Please answer This is apart of my grade
Sholpan [36]

Answer:

3/3

Step-by-step explanation:

-4 + 2/3 eqeuls that because well actaully there is no right answer just that's as close as u can get too a right answer

8 0
2 years ago
Melinda and Marcus are saving money to purchase a present for a friend. Each friend starts with an amount and also saves a speci
Goshia [24]
Let's find the rates at which Melinda and Marcus are saving money and compare them. 
Based on the table, we can see that Melinda originally had $75. Then she got $135 in 5 weeks.  So the rate of saving money is (135–75)/5 = $12 per week.
This rate is unchanged for the next weeks. As we can see, she got $195 in the next 5 weeks. So she saved $60 more those 5 weeks, or the rate is $60/5 = $12 per week again. 

So Melinda saved $12 per week.
As for Marcus, the equation tells us that the rate of saving money is $14 which is the coefficient in front of x.

Hence, t<span>he rate at which Melinda is adding to her savings each week is 2$
less than the rate at which Marcus is adding to his savings each week.</span>
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In Miami, the number of highway accidents increased by 20% over a four year period. How many accidents were there in 2013 if the
dalvyx [7]
5120*.2=1024
5120+1024=6144
5 0
3 years ago
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The probability that a grader will make a marking error on any particular question of a multiple-choice exam is 0.15. If there a
sashaice [31]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(10C10)(0.15)^{0} (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

P(X=0)=(nCn)(p)^{0} (1-p)^{n-0}=(1-p)^n

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

The complement rule is a theorem that provides a connection between the probability of an event and the probability of the complement of the event. Lat A the event of interest and A' the complement. The rule is defined by: P(A)+P(A') =1

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.15)

what is the probability that no errors are made?

For this case means that all the questions were correct so we want this probability:

P(X=0)=(10C10)(0.15)^{0} (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969

what is the probability that at least one error made?

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complement rule:

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

If there are n questions and the probability of a marking error is p rather than 0.15, give expressions for the probabilities of no errors  and at least one error

P(X=0)=(nCn)(p)^{0} (1-p)^{n-0}=(1-p)^n

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

8 0
3 years ago
I need help with finding the correct way of order of operations.
Alika [10]
I hope this helps you



6+4×2^3



6+4×8


6+32


38
5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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