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Alika [10]
3 years ago
12

An airplane flies 315 km in 1 hour 45 minutes. Calculate the average speed.

Mathematics
1 answer:
valentina_108 [34]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

3 km per minute

Step-by-step explanation:

speed = distance / time

315km/105 minutes

= 3 km per minute

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Doss [256]

Answer:

If you want to draw a perpendicular line from a point on a line, you would measure a 90 degree angle from that point and then draw the line outward.

Explanation

On the other hand, if you wanted to draw a perpendicular line connecting a line and a point off of the line, you would have to connect the point to the location on the line that forms a 90 degree angle.

Both methods involve making a 90 degree angle between two lines. Can you think of any other similarities?

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Which statement explains how the lines x+y=2 and y=x+4 are related
ohaa [14]

Answer: They are similar because they intersect with each other at (-1,3).

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2.10 Guessing on an exam: In a multiple choice exam, there are 6 questions and 4 choices for each question (a, b, c, d). Nancy h
ololo11 [35]

Answer:

a) p = (3/4)^5 *(1/4) =0.0593

b) P(X=6) = (6C6) (0.25)^6 (1-0.25)^{6-6}= 0.000244

c) P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complement rule like this:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

P(X=0) = (6C0) (0.25)^0 (1-0.25)^{6-0}= 0.17798

And replacing we have:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

The complement rule is a theorem that provides a connection between the probability of an event and the probability of the complement of the event. Lat A the event of interest and A' the complement. The rule is defined by: P(A)+P(A') =1

We can model the number of correct questions answered with a binomial distribution X \sim Binom(n = 6, p = 1/4=0.25)

Solution to the problem

Assuming the following questions:

a) the first question she gets right is the 6th question?  

For this case we want the first 5 questions incorrect and the last one correct, assuming independence we have:

p = (3/4)^5 *(1/4) =0.0593

(b) she gets all of the questions right?

For this case we want all the questions right so then we want this:

P(X=6) = (6C6) (0.25)^6 (1-0.25)^{6-6}= 0.000244

(c) she gets at least one question right?

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complement rule like this:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

P(X=0) = (6C0) (0.25)^0 (1-0.25)^{6-0}= 0.17798

And replacing we have:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

7 0
2 years ago
timmy was asked to order nine pizzas, with the following orders: one pepperoni and one cheese how many did he order in total
Romashka [77]
11 pizza's.

9 + 1 + 1 = 11
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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