Step-by-step explanation:
number 1 is 68 degrees Fahrenheit and number 2 is 98.6=37 degrees Celsius and 102 fahrenheit is higher than the normal
5,5.2,2
6,6,1,1
4,4,3,3
2,2,55
Answer:
<u><em>The original price would be 50$.</em></u>
Step-by-step explanation:
To find this answer you have to divide 25% by 100, which equals 0.25. Now multiply 0.25 by 40 and you get 10$. Since 10$ was the discount, you just add 10$ + 40$, therefore 50$ is the original price.
Answer: 8.7 x 5.28
We have to find that expression , which has an estimated product of
1.→44.7 x 2.1
2.→7.5 x 8.4
3.→8.7 x 5.28
4.→38.1 x 7.3
We will start from option 1.
→44.7 x 2.1
44.7 when estimated to nearest tenth=45
2.1, when estimated to nearest tenth=2
44.7 × 2.1=45×2=90
Option 2
7.5 x 8.4
7.5 when estimated to nearest tenth=8
8.4, when estimated to nearest tenth=8
⇒7.5 × 8.4=8×8=64
Option 3
8.7 × 5.28
8.7, when estimated to nearest tenth=9
5.28, when estimated to nearest tenth=5
⇒8.7 × 5.28=9×5=45
Option D
38.1 × 7.3
38.1 when estimated to nearest tenth=38
7.3, when estimated to nearest tenth=7
⇒38×7=266
Option C:⇒8.7 × 5.28 has an estimated product of 45
Answer:
0.03333
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.
Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3
The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.
Machine I II III total
Faulty 0.10 0.20 0.05
Prob 0.3333 0.3333 0.3334 1
Faulty*prob 0.03333 0.06666 0.16665 0.26664
Thus probability that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine
= 0.03333
