Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
from the picture:
QP = QR
and
QR = RS
so
PQ + RS = QS
The formula
in solving the integral of the infinity of 3 is ∫3<span>∞?</span>(1<span>)÷((</span>x−2<span><span>)<span><span>(3/</span><span>2)</span></span></span>)</span><span>dx</span>
Substitute the numbers given
then solve
limn→inf∫3n(1/((n−2)(3/2))dn
limn→inf[−2/(n−2−−−−−√)−(−2/3−2−−−−√)
=0+2=2
Solve for the integral of 2 when 2 is approximate to 0.
Transpose 2 from the other side to make it -2
∫∞3(x−2)−3/2dx=(x−2)−1/2−1/2+C
(x−2)−1/2=1x−2−−−−√
0−(3−2)−1/2−1/2=2
<span> </span>
add all amd divide by the 40 ???let me know if im wrong
Which one do you need help with?