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Luba_88 [7]
3 years ago
10

1/6 divided by 7/8 plz help

Mathematics
1 answer:
marysya [2.9K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Here we will show you how to calculate 1/6 divided by 7/8. We will give you the answer in fraction form and in decimal form.

Here is 1/6 divided by 7/8 displayed mathematically in colors:

1

6

 ÷    

7

8

The numbers in 1/6 divided by 7/8 are labeled below:

1 = dividend numerator

6 = dividend denominator

7 = divisor numerator

8 = divisor denominator

To make it a fraction form answer, you multiply the dividend numerator by the divisor denominator to make a new numerator.

Furthermore, you multiply the dividend denominator by the divisor numerator to make a new denominator:

1 x 8

6 x 7

 =    

8

42

Thus, the answer to 1/6 divided by 7/8 in fraction form is:

8

42

Step-by-step explanation:

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How many 2/5 are in 8?
umka21 [38]
Answer : 212
Reason why is because yu have 2/5 you multiply it across 8/1 5x1= 5 and 8x2= 16 then you will have 5/16 you divide 5 into 16 , 5 goes into 16 twice then subtract 16 and 10 then you would have 6 bring down the 0 and you have 60 . 5 goes into 60 12 times then you have your answer 212 .
4 0
2 years ago
Need the answer for x and y
Hunter-Best [27]

Answer:

x = 6

CD = 59

Step-by-step explanation:

10x - 1 = 8x + 11

combine like terms:

2x = 12

x = 6

CD = 8(6) + 11 = 59

5 0
3 years ago
Possible
Alecsey [184]
<h3>Answer:  Independent</h3>

For two events A and B, if the occurrence of either event in no way affects the probability of the occurrence of the other event, then the two events are considered to be <u>  independent  </u> events.

=========================================================

Explanation:

Consider the idea of flipping a coin and rolling a dice. If these actions are separate (i.e. they don't bump into each other), then one object won't affect the other. Hence, one probability won't change the other. We consider these events to be independent.

In contrast, let's say we're pulling out cards from a deck. If we don't put the first card back, then the future probabilities of other cards will change. This is considered dependent.

3 0
2 years ago
*PLEASE HELP *Any answers that are not relevant will be reported as spam*
Alex Ar [27]
Slope intercept form: y = mx + b

Equation: 682 = 40x
Slope = 40 (or 40/1)
Y-intercept = 0

In this case,

y = the total
x = the amount of minutes
y-intercept = 0, since there isn’t a b in the equation.
slope = 40, because y = mx + b is 682 = 40x

This should be correct, unless there is missing information in the question.
4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A mobile phone carrier charges an extra fee if a customer uses more than 500 minutes each month. Tom has already used 230 minute
xxMikexx [17]
Let x = the minutes that Tom has remaining before exceeding 500 minutes.

Because he has already used 230 minutes, the total minutes he has is
x + 230
We want this total to be less than or equal to 500 minutes.
Therefore
x + 230 ≤ 500

Answer:  x + 230 ≤ 500

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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