set x=0 to get insights.
at x=0 to the functions are
-2(0-2)²+3 = -5
-2(0+2)²-3 = -11
-2(0-2)²+3 = -5
-2(0-2)²-3 = -11
weird, for some reason option 1 and 3 seem to be the same, maybe that's an accident by the author.
maybe a + was intended inside the parentheses, dunno.
option 1 and 3 seem fine, although I think there is an error in the options. they shouldn't be exactly the same
For the first question, it's 20/60 (if it's a leap year, but tht doesn't rlly matter). That can be reduced to 1/3. However, there's also 5/60 which is reduced to 1/12. Since 1/3 is bigger than 1/12, he shouldn't expect to be able to get around at least 5 of the days. (But, I'm not exactly sure if this answer is correct. Just guess; there's 50% you'll get it correct and 50% you won't.)
For the second question, you first have to convert '56 out of 64 days' thing to percentage. You do 56/64 x 100 which is 5600/64. That equals to 87.5%. Since 90 > 87.5, the train is more reliable.
THE END
Answer:
It is
Step-by-step explanation:
Parralel Lines. Since they have the same opposite angles, they will never touch, being parallel
Answer:
B.
Step-by-step explanation:
f(x) = 4(1/2)^x
Let's find the value of the function for x = 0 and for x = 1.
f(0) = 4(1/2)^0 = 4(1) = 4
f(1) = 4(1/2)^1 = 4(1/2) = 2
The only graph that has both points (0, 4) and (1, 2) is the second graph.
Answer: B.
