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Irina18 [472]
3 years ago
7

The most significant conceptual difference between the arbitrage pricing theory (i.e. APT or factor model) and the capital asset

pricing model (CAPM) is that APT _____________.
a. places less emphasis on market risk
b. recognizes multiple unsystematic risk factors
c. recognizes only one systematic risk factor
d. recognizes multiple systematic risk factors
Business
1 answer:
AysviL [449]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Option C: Recognizes only one systematic risk factor

Explanation:

Arbitrage pricing theory (APT) is a theory of risk-return relationships gotten from no-arbitrage and considerations in large capital markets

APT was said to be developed by Steve Ross, 1976 and it uses "No-Arbitrage" Assumption. It was designed mainly to provide "economic" variables to the determination of asset pricing.

capital asset pricing model (CAPM) is simply a model that shows the required rate of return on a security to its systematic risk as taken up or measured by beta.

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Last year Swensen Corp. had sales of $303,225, operating costs of $267,500, and year-end assets of $195,000. The debt-to-total-a
kolbaska11 [484]

Answer:

The correct option is D

There is increase in ROE by 2.86%

d. 2.86%

EXPLANATION:

THIS IS THE COMPLETE QUESTION BELOW;

Last year Swensen Corp. had sales of $303,225, operating costs of $267,500, and year-end assets of $195,000. The debt-to-total-assets ratio was 27%, the interest rate on the debt was 8.2%, and the firm's tax rate was 37%. The new CFO wants to see how the ROE would have been affected if the firm had used a 45% debt ratio. Assume that sales and total assets would not be affected, and that the interest rate and tax rate would both remain constant. By how much would the ROE change in response to the change in the capital structure?

a. 2.08%

b. 2.32%

c. 2.57%

d. 2.86%

e. 3.14%

CHECK THE ATTACHMENT BELOW FOR DETAILED EXPLANATION

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following are true of an economy operating below full employment? Check all that apply. Actual real GDP is less tha
scoray [572]

Answer:

The economy has an unemployment rate higher than the natural rate of unemployment.

Explanation:

Full Employment is when all workers able & willing to work, are employed.

Unemployment is when a person able & willing to do a work , doesn't get work.

However, there is certain 'natural' level of unemployment normalised during efficient running of economy. It involves frictional & structural unemployment. Frictional unemployment is temporary unemployment of people shifting their jobs and Structural unemployment is temporary unemployment due to industrial reorganisation (eg : technological change).

So, Economy being below Full Employment implies that economy has unemployment level above natural rate of unemployment.

4 0
3 years ago
The main economic activity in most low-income countries is:
Ira Lisetskai [31]
<span>The main economic activity in most low-income countries is agriculture. Agriculture refers to breeding </span>animals to provide food and farming for different type of food and fiber. Those that live and work in low-income countries do a lot of farming to feed and produce items for their economy. 
4 0
3 years ago
Cullumber Co. receives $343,800 when it issues a $343,800, 10%, mortgage note payable to finance the construction of a building
Katyanochek1 [597]

Answer:

See the journal entries below.

Explanation:

The journal entries will look as follows:

<u>Date           Description                                Debit ($)          Credit ($)    </u>

31 Dec 20   Cash                                           343,800

                   Mortgage note payable                                     343,800

<u><em>                    (To record the issue of mortgage note.)                                 </em></u>

31 Dec 21    Interest expense (w.1)                 34,380

                   Mortgage note payable (w.2)     22,920

                   Cash                                                                     57,300

<u><em>                    (To record the first annual installment on Mortgage note.)    </em></u>

31 Dec 22   Interest expense (w.4)                 32,088

                   Mortgage note payable (w.5)       25,212

                   Cash                                                                     57,300

<u><em>                    (To record the second annual installment on Mortgage note.)  </em></u>  

Workings:

w.1. Interest expense on December 31, 2021 = Mortgage loan amount * Interest rate = $343,800 * 10% = $34,380

w.2. Principal paid on December 31, 2021 = Annual installment payments - Interest expense on December 31, 2021 = $57,300 - $34,380 = $22,920

w.3 Mortgage loan balance on December 31, 2021 = Mortgage loan amount - Principal paid on December 31, 2021 = $343,800 - $22,920 = $320,880

w.4. Interest expense on December 31, 2022 = Mortgage loan balance on December 31, 2021  * Interest rate = $320,880 * 10% = $32,088

w.5. Principal paid on December 31, 2022 = Annual installment payments - Interest expense on December 31, 2022 = $57,300 - $32,088 = $25,212

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Answer:

Not completely sure but i believe Corporate wellness?

Explanation:

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4 years ago
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