Answer:
b. Subtracting the base period amount from the analysis period amount, dividing the result by the base period amount, then multiplying that amount by 100%
Step-by-step explanation:
A percentage change can be computed from ...
((new amount) -(old amount))/(old amount) × 100%
This best matches the description of choice B.
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<em>Comment on the answer</em>
The formula offered in the question will show the "percent change" from 100 to 103 as 3. It is not 3; rather, it is 3%. The final multiplication must be by 100% in order to arrive at the proper number.
Answer:
y = kx+m is the linear equation
k: the slope
m: where the line crosses the y-axis
which gives
Step-by-step explanation:
y=-6x + m
insert the coordinates in the equation
-8 = -6 * 2 + m
-8 = -12 + m
m = -8 + 12
m = 4
--> ans: y = -6x + 4
Answer:
The axis of symmetry will be at 1
Step-by-step explanation:
The middle of -3 and 5 will be the axis :)
-3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
-2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
-1, 0, 1, 2, 3
0, 1, 2
1
Use a Mohr circle to find the maximum shear stress relative to the axial stress.
Here we assume the axial stress is sigma, the transverse axial stress is zero.
So we have a Mohr circle with (0,0) and (0,sigma) as a diameter.
The centre of the circle is therefore (0,sigma/2), and the radius is sigma/2.
From the circle, we determine that the maximum stress is the maximum y-axis values, namely +/- sigma/2, at locations (sigma/2, sigma/2), and (sigma/2, -sigma/2).
Given that the maximum shear stress is 60 MPa, we have
sigma/2=60 MPa, or sigma=120 MPa.
(note: 1 MPa = 1N/mm^2)
Therefore
100 kN/(pi*d^2/4)=100,000 N/(pi*d^2/4)=120 MPa where d is in mm.
Solve for d
d=sqrt(100,000*4/(120*pi))
=32.5735 mm
Honestly bro i'm not sure i think it's because y=mx+b
