The coordinates would be 4,0?
Proof by induction
Base case:
n=1: 1*2*3=6 is obviously divisible by six.
Assumption: For every n>1 n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6.
For n+1:
(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)=
(n(n+1)(n+2)+3(n+1)(n+2))
We have assumed that n(n+1)(n+2) is divisble by 6.
We now only need to prove that 3(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6.
If 3(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6, then (n+1)(n+2) must be divisible by 2.
The "cool" part about this proof.
Since n is a natural number greater than 1 we can say the following:
If n is an odd number, then n+1 is even, then n+1 is divisible by 2 thus (n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 2,so we have proved what we wanted.
If n is an even number" then n+2 is even, then n+1 is divisible by 2 thus (n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 2,so we have proved what we wanted.
Therefore by using the method of mathematical induction we proved that for every natural number n, n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6. QED.
Answer:
The question is open ended as i suppose since there are infinitely many possibilities. one possible form of the solution can be 
Step-by-step explanation:
The base in this case is 5 while the exponent is simply the power to which the base is raised in which case it would be 2. Both values are positive and the exponent is less than the base.
Answer:
5.62 - 0.32= 5.3 or 5.30
Step-by-step explanation:
