Answer:
a
Explanation:
because it correct answer and correct answer
Answer:
Asset minus the total value liabilities
Explanation:
The solution for the problem follows:
Expense = variable expenses * quantity of produced + fixed
expenses
= 14q + 78,490
= 14 (3500) + 78, 490
= 49000 + 78,490
= $127, 490 is the total expense for 3,500 tennis rackets
Get the per piece expense by dividing 127,490 to 3500
Expense per piece = 127,490 / 3500
= $36.43
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Answer:
A) It is subtracted from the Bonds Payable balance and shown with long-term liabilities on the balance sheet
Explanation:
The discount on Bonds payable, as their name implies, decrease the Bonds Payable carrying value. A bond with discounts, was issued at a lower price than his face value. The discount on bonds represent that difference.
It takes amortization while the time past, until at maturity, their balance is zero, to represent the reality, the obligation for the company is for the face value, so the carrying value of bonds payable should equal the face value.
Last, because the bonds are due in ten-year their place is the long-term liabilities. As their obligation are not within the 12 month period to qualify as short-term
Answer:
Option (C) is correct
Explanation:
The payment is made during the discount period of 11 days so the 2% discount rate would be applicable.
Goods purchased = $112,000
Goods returned = $2,200
Discount = (Goods purchased - goods returned) × 2%
= ($112,000 - $2,200) × 2%
= $2,196
Net purchase = Goods purchased - returned - Discount
= $112,000 - $2,200 - $2,196
= $107,604
Total inventory cost = Net purchase + Freight cost
= $107,604 + $400
= $108,004
Therefore, company’s inventory increased by $108,004.
