24 divided by 6 plus 9 subtract 3 divide 2 =5
Answer:
40.1% probability that he will miss at least one of them
Step-by-step explanation:
For each target, there are only two possible outcomes. Either he hits it, or he does not. The probability of hitting a target is independent of other targets. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.
In which
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.
And p is the probability of X happening.
0.95 probaiblity of hitting a target
This means that 
10 targets
This means that 
What is the probability that he will miss at least one of them?
Either he hits all the targets, or he misses at least one of them. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

We want P(X < 10). So

In which

40.1% probability that he will miss at least one of them
Answer:
The transformation of
to
consists in a vertical translation. The new equation is
.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let
. We proceed to make the required transformations on
, which consists in one vertical translation, 3 units in the -y direction. That is to say:
(1)


Then, the transformation of
to
consists in a vertical translation. The new equation is
.