Answer:
so they can end up spending less on interest payments and credit card fees.
Explanation:
Answer:
An alternative is also known as Uncollectible accounts expense
Explanation:
A bad debt expense is recognized when a receivable is no longer collectible because a customer is unable to fulfill their obligation to pay an outstanding debt due to bankruptcy or other financial problems.
Bad debt expenses are generally classified as a sales and general administrative expense and are found on the income statement. Recognizing bad debts leads to an offsetting reduction to accounts receivable on the balance sheet.
<u>Bad debt expense is also known as Uncollectible accounts expense</u>
Answer:
No
Explanation:
to determine if another 10% decrease in the price cause another 8% increase (no more and no less) in quantity demanded, we have to determine the price elasticity of demand.
Price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded to changes in price of the good.
Price elasticity of demand = percentage change in quantity demanded / percentage change in price
8% / 10% = 0.8
demand in inelastic so a 10% reduction in price would lead to a less than 8% change in quantity demanded
Demand is inelastic if a small change in price has little or no effect on quantity demanded. The absolute value of elasticity would be less than one
Answer: a. It merely conducted some activity outside of Alaska and that activity took place through a website.
Explanation:
CalmDown can use the defence that all it did was to conduct an activity through it's website and this happened to be outside Alaska.
As such the company is still bound by the state that it is registered in which in this case would seem to be in Alaska. They are not to be bound by the laws of another jurisdiction from the one they are registered to if the activity was done on the internet.
Marcus should therefore try to bring action against them in Alaska if he can.
Answer:
a. True
Explanation:
from the CAPM formula we can derive the statemeent as true.
risk free = 0.05
market rate = 0.12
premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.07
beta(non diversifiable risk) = 0
Ke 0.05000
As the beta multiplies the difference between the market rate and risk-free rate a beta of zero will nulify the second part of the equation leaving only the risk-free rate. This means the portfolio is not expose to volatility