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Alekssandra [29.7K]
3 years ago
8

Bismith Company reported: Actual fixed overhead Fixed manufacturing overhead spending variance Fixed manufacturing production-vo

lume variance $700,000 $40,000 unfavorable $30,000 unfavorable
To record the write-off of these variances at the end of the accounting period, Bismith would
A. credit Fixed Manufacturing Production-Volume Variance for $30,000
B. debit Fixed Manufacturing Control for $700,000
C. credit Fixed Manufacturing Overhead Allocated for $700,000
D. debit Fixed Manufacturing Overhead Spending Variance for $40,000
Business
1 answer:
max2010maxim [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

D. Debit fixed manufacturing overhead spending variance for $40,000

Explanation:

Since fixed manufacturing overhead shows the difference between the actual fixed overhead costs and budgeted fixed overhead cost during a period, Bismith would debit fixed manufacturing overhead spending variance of $40,000 inorder to write off the recording of the variances at the end of the accounting period because the value for fixed manufacturing overhead spending variance has already being gotten hence would be applied at the end of the period.

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Let S represent the amount of steel produced (in tons). Steel production is related to the amount of labor used (L) and the amou
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Solution

S = 15 x L^{0.2} x C^{0.8}

Total cost, T = wL + rC = 50L + 100C

Total revenue, R = Output price (P) x Quantity = P x 15 x L^{0.2}x C^{0.8}

(a)

Optimization problem will be:

Max R = P x 15 x L^{0.2} x C^{0.8}

Subject to T = 50L + 100C

(b) When S = 50,000

Cost is minimized when (MPL / MPC) = w / r

MPL = \partialR / \partialL = P x 15 x 0.2 x (C / L)^{0.8} = P x 3 x (C / L)^{0.8}

MPC = \partialR / \partialC = P x 15 x 0.8 x (L / C)^{0.2} = P x 12 x (L / C)^{0.2}

MPL / MPC = (3/12) x (C / L) = 50/100

C / 4L = 1/2

4L = 2C

2L = C

Substituting in production function,

15 x L^{0.2} x C^{0.8} = S

15 xL^{0.2} x (2L)^{0.8} = 50,000

15 x 2^{0.8} x L^{0.2} x L^{0.8} = 50,000

L = 50,000 / (15 x 20.8)

L = 1,914.50

C = 2L = 3,829.00

Total cost ($) = 50 x 1,914.50 + 100 x 3,829.00 = 95,725.00 + 382,900 = 478,625.00

Note: This optimization problem can be solved without using Solver too, as shown here.

6 0
3 years ago
Isabella loves Coca Cola products. She has several memorabilia from her visit to the World of Coca Cola proudly displayed in her
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Answer:

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Explanation:

Brand loyalty is one of the factors that most helps explain why consumers choose one brand or another among all the options offered by the market. According to Jensen and Hansen (2006), the organizations with the most loyal customers have a high market share, which in turn translates into greater profitability. This explains, in part, the growing interest that is evident today in the study of this topic.

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4 years ago
B offered to sell a boat to C for $35,000. C’s response stated “I accept your offer but I will also need the boat moved to my bo
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B offered to sell a boat to C for $35,000. C’s response stated “I accept your offer but I will also need the boat moved to my boat slip at the same marina.” in this there is no contract
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The ending retained earnigns balacne is reported on both the retaiend earnigns stastaemnt and the balacne sheet.
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Floyd Industries stock has a beta of 1.20. The company just paid a dividend of $.50, and the dividends are expected to grow at 6
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Answer:

a.

r = 0.06697 or 6.697% rounded off to 6.70%

b.

r = 0.1202 or 12.02%

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Where,

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Plugging in the values for P0, D0 and g in the formula, we can calculate the value of r to be,

76 = 0.5 * (1+0.06) / (r - 0.06)

76 * (r - 0.06) = 0.53

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76r = 0.53 + 4.56

r = 5.09 / 76

r = 0.06697 or 6.697% rounded off to 6.70%

.

Using the CAPM, we can calculate the required/expected rate of return on a stock. This is the minimum return required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk, the market's risk premium and the risk free rate.  

The formula for required rate of return under CAPM is,

r = rRF + Beta * (rM - rRF)

Where,

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r = 0.1202 or 12.02%

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