The conclusion about the functions is they have the same y-intercept.
<h3>How to make conclusion about the functions?</h3>
The complete question is added as an attachment
The function is given as:
f(x) = (x + 4)^2
From the attached graph, the graph has a y-intercept at:
y = 16
This can be represented as:
(0, 16)
Next, we set x = 0 in f(x) = (x + 4)^2
f(0) = (0 + 4)^2
Evaluate
f(0) = 16
This means that the y-intercept of f(x) = (x + 4)^2 is (0, 16)
So, the functions have the same y-intercept
Hence, the conclusion about the functions is they have the same y-intercept.
Read more about y-intercept at
brainly.com/question/25722412
#SPJ1
Answer:
Answer C --> y = 1/3 sin(x)
Step-by-step explanation:
When you are finding the inverse of a function, you are trying to obtain the function that applied to the one given gives you as result EXACTLY "x".
You know that the function sin(x) is the inverse of Arcsin(x), because when you applied it as follows, you obtain x (by cancelling out Arcsin and "liberating" the argument inside it: "x") :
But in this case applying sin (x) to Arcsin (3x) will not render just x, because the argument that ARcsin is carrying is not just "x" but "3x":
So we need to divide by 3 as well in order to obtain just "x" after applying our inverse. The function that does such is the third one listed (C), sinc it also has a multiplicative 1/3 that will cancel the factor 3 we want to get rid of.
Answer:
18 and 10.
Step-by-step explanation:
yz - x
= 8*3 - 6
= 24 - 6
= 18
2(x + z) - y
= 2(6 + 3) - 8
= 2 * 9 - 8
= 18 - 8
= 10
