37.64 × 10^-6
pls mark branliest
The answer is no it will be less here's why let say the original amount is A then a p% increase will be A(1+p/100))
Now from this amount we decrease it by p% this gives A(1+p/100)(1-p/100). We can simplify this expression some by letting x=p/100 then we have A(1+x)(1-x) but this is equal to A(1-x2). You can see that the value of what's inside the () is always <1 as long as x>0. If we calculate how much the amount changes we have A(1-x2)-A=-Ax2 is always a loss.
This is one of the reasons some people lose money in the stock market. If a stock rises 10% and then drops 10% you have actually lost money but it sounds, on the face of it, like you should be even. +10 and -10 percent.
If we now do the calculation for the 25% up and down we have the final amount is is .9375 which is 1.25*.75. and the change is .9375-1=-.0625. So the net result is down 6.25%
I think that would be 40 correct me if I’m wrong
Answer:
5
Step-by-step explanation:
