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TEA [102]
3 years ago
7

Is the following example a social group or a task group?

Business
1 answer:
marissa [1.9K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

social

Explanation:

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Human capital is:________
Dvinal [7]

Answer:

Human capital is an intangible asset or quality not listed on a company's balance sheet.

Explanation:

It can be classified as the economic value of a worker's experience and skills. This includes assets like education, training, intelligence, skills, health, and other things employers value such as loyalty and punctuality. hope this helps you :)

3 0
3 years ago
Green Valley Exporters USA has $100,000 of before tax foreign income. The host country has a corporate income tax rate of 25% an
Vinil7 [7]

Answer:

Amount paid in host country will be = Income * Tax rate in host country = $100,000*25% = $25,000

Amount paid in US will be Income * Tax rate in US - Tax paid in host country (Since the tax rate in host country is lower than USA) = $100,000*35% - $25,000 = $35,000 - $25,000 = $10,000

7 0
3 years ago
While other suppliers bidding for the contract brought bids with lower per unit costs, Orchard wanted to take delivery based on
Daniel [21]

Answer:

The correct answer is A) top quality.

Explanation:

There are generally two sales approaches: the first, product-oriented. This takes into account its own characteristics in terms of presentation, quality and utility; and the second, people-oriented, where the real needs of the consumer are studied to determine how he uses the good in order to orient himself towards satisfying a need.

The example clearly shows that the orientation with minimum unit costs was mainly focused on the client, so that the first impression is that of a lower price to motivate their purchase decision. For his part, Orchard clearly shows a product orientation, because he tries to offer quality by sacrificing other variables to supply a need.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A total-cost curve shows the relationship between the
Tanzania [10]
The answer has to be a
5 0
3 years ago
On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty
likoan [24]

Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

  • the Straight-line method is $90,000.
  • the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

  • The painting is capitalized because it is the first time Trust Delivery would be using the asset, otherwise it would have been expended
  • Overhauling cost can be regarded as a separate asset, if we were provided with different useful lives - componentization.

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

7 0
3 years ago
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