Is the following example a social group or a task group?

Dvinal [7]

Answer:

Human capital is an intangible asset or quality not listed on a company's balance sheet.

Explanation:

It can be classified as the economic value of a worker's experience and skills. This includes assets like education, training, intelligence, skills, health, and other things employers value such as loyalty and punctuality. hope this helps you :)

3 0

3 years ago

Green Valley Exporters USA has $100,000 of before tax foreign income. The host country has a corporate income tax rate of 25% an

Vinil7 [7]

Answer:

Amount paid in host country will be = Income * Tax rate in host country = $100,000*25% = $25,000

Amount paid in US will be Income * Tax rate in US - Tax paid in host country (Since the tax rate in host country is lower than USA) = $100,000*35% - $25,000 = $35,000 - $25,000 = $10,000

7 0

3 years ago

While other suppliers bidding for the contract brought bids with lower per unit costs, Orchard wanted to take delivery based on

Daniel [21]

Answer:

The correct answer is A) top quality.

Explanation:

There are generally two sales approaches: the first, product-oriented. This takes into account its own characteristics in terms of presentation, quality and utility; and the second, people-oriented, where the real needs of the consumer are studied to determine how he uses the good in order to orient himself towards satisfying a need.

The example clearly shows that the orientation with minimum unit costs was mainly focused on the client, so that the first impression is that of a lower price to motivate their purchase decision. For his part, Orchard clearly shows a product orientation, because he tries to offer quality by sacrificing other variables to supply a need.

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A total-cost curve shows the relationship between the

Tanzania [10]

The answer has to be a

5 0

3 years ago

On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty

likoan [24]

Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

the Straight-line method is $90,000.
the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

The painting is capitalized because it is the first time Trust Delivery would be using the asset, otherwise it would have been expended
Overhauling cost can be regarded as a separate asset, if we were provided with different useful lives - componentization.

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

7 0

3 years ago