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Anika [276]
3 years ago
10

Laura is planning a party for her son. She has $50 dollars remaining in her budget and wants to provide one party favor per pers

on to at least 10 guests. She found some miniature stuffed animals for $6.00 each and some toy trucks for $4.00 each. Which system of inequalities represents this situation, where x is the number of stuffed animals and y is the number of toy trucks?
Mathematics
1 answer:
enyata [817]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The system of inequalities that represents this situation is:

x+y≥10

6x+4y≤50

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement says that Laura wants to provide one party favor per person to at least 10 guests, the first inequality would indicate that the number of stuffed animals plus the number of toy trucks should be equal or greater than 10:

x+y≥10

Also, the statement indicates that miniature stuffed animals cost $6.00 each and the toy trucks cost $4.00 each and that Laura has $50. From this, you would have an inequality that indicates that 6 for the number of miniature stuffed animals and 4 for the number of toy trucks would be equal or less than 50:

6x+4y≤50

The answer is that the system of inequalities that represents this situation is:

x+y≥10

6x+4y≤50

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A family purchased tickets to a museum and spent a total of $38.00. The family purchased 4 tickets. There was a $1.50 purchasing
Naya [18.7K]

Answer:

4 (x+1.50) = $38.00

Explanation:

The family purchases 4 tickets. Each tickets cost x dollars with a purchase fee of $1.50. So we need to multiply 4 times the sum of x plus $1.50. The total cost of the tickets needs to be $38.00.

8 0
3 years ago
A ratio can be simplified.
Yuri [45]

Answer:

Yes, a ratio can be simplified.

Step-by-step explanation:

An example of this is 5:10, where it can be simplified down to 1:2.

8 0
3 years ago
5.2.14. For the negative binomial pdf p (k; p, r) = k+r−1 (1 − p)kpr, find the maximum likelihood k estimator for p if r is know
Volgvan

Answer:

\hat p = \frac{r}{\bar x +r}

Step-by-step explanation:

A negative binomial random variable "is the number X of repeated trials to produce r successes in a negative binomial experiment. The probability distribution of a negative binomial random variable is called a negative binomial distribution, this distribution is known as the Pascal distribution".

And the probability mass function is given by:

P(X=x) = (x+r-1 C k)p^r (1-p)^{x}

Where r represent the number successes after the k failures and p is the probability of a success on any given trial.

Solution to the problem

For this case the likehoof function is given by:

L(\theta , x_i) = \prod_{i=1}^n f(\theta ,x_i)

If we replace the mass function we got:

L(p, x_i) = \prod_{i=1}^n (x_i +r-1 C k) p^r (1-p)^{x_i}

When we take the derivate of the likehood function we got:

l(p,x_i) = \sum_{i=1}^n [log (x_i +r-1 C k) + r log(p) + x_i log(1-p)]

And in order to estimate the likehood estimator for p we need to take the derivate from the last expression and we got:

\frac{dl(p,x_i)}{dp} = \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{r}{p} -\frac{x_i}{1-p}

And we can separete the sum and we got:

\frac{dl(p,x_i)}{dp} = \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{r}{p} -\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{x_i}{1-p}

Now we need to find the critical point setting equal to zero this derivate and we got:

\frac{dl(p,x_i)}{dp} = \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{r}{p} -\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{x_i}{1-p}=0

\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{r}{p} =\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{x_i}{1-p}

For the left and right part of the expression we just have this using the properties for a sum and taking in count that p is a fixed value:

\frac{nr}{p}= \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n x_i}{1-p}

Now we need to solve the value of \hat p from the last equation like this:

nr(1-p) = p \sum_{i=1}^n x_i

nr -nrp =p \sum_{i=1}^n x_i

p \sum_{i=1}^n x_i +nrp = nr

p[\sum_{i=1}^n x_i +nr]= nr

And if we solve for \hat p we got:

\hat p = \frac{nr}{\sum_{i=1}^n x_i +nr}

And if we divide numerator and denominator by n we got:

\hat p = \frac{r}{\bar x +r}

Since \bar x = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n x_i}{n}

4 0
3 years ago
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Bezzdna [24]
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7 0
1 year ago
PLS HELP QUICK!!!
Flura [38]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

8*5/6= 20/3 which is equal to 40/6 or forty sixths

Please mark brainlest

7 0
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