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Solnce55 [7]
3 years ago
13

Somebody help me out please

Mathematics
1 answer:
dalvyx [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

So need me to solve it?

Step-by-step explanation:

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Harrizon [31]

Answer:

62.8cubic units

Step-by-step explanation:

volume of a cylinder isπ×radius×radius×height.hope it helps.

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What do I do I’m lost I need help?
ale4655 [162]

Answer:

27

Step-by-step explanation:

the sequence is 4 added to each number. 4 added to 23 is 27

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3 years ago
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What is the slope of the line that passes through the points (-2, 2), and (-4, -2)? - 2 -2
dusya [7]

The formula of a slope:

m=\dfrac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}

We have the points (-2, 2) and (-4, -2). Substitute:

m=\dfrac{-2-2}{-4-(-2)}=\dfrac{-4}{-2}=2

<h3>Answer: the slope = 2</h3>
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3 years ago
3.<br> B<br> С<br> A<br> D<br> E<br> How many rays intersect at point o?
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4 years ago
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7.4 Practice
pickupchik [31]

The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability

  • The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
  • The probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
  • The probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two</h3>

From the question,

  • Numbers 1 to 7 represents the medicine being effective
  • 0, 8 and 9 represents the medicine not being effective

From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two

So, the probability is:

p = 23/30

p = 0.767

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on none</h3>

From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none

So, the probability is:

p = 0/30

p = 0

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0

<h3>The probability a bowler hits a headpin</h3>

The probability of hitting a headpin is:

p = 90%

The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:

P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)

So, we have:

P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1

P(4) = 0.3281

Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

Read more about probabilities at:

brainly.com/question/25870256

8 0
2 years ago
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