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katen-ka-za [31]
3 years ago
15

I really don't understand this honestly. Please help lol

Mathematics
1 answer:
klasskru [66]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

300

Step-by-step explanation:

I t is good

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In a game using a spinner with five equal parts numbered 1 to 5, a contestant wins when the spinner lands on an odd number. Is t
gayaneshka [121]

Answer:

A. yes

Step-by-step explanation:

The contestant has a 60% chance of winning because they could either spin 1, 3, or 5.

However, unless there's another player who can only spin evens, it's not fair, because the contestant who spins odds has a 60% chance, while this player will only have a 40% chance.

3 0
2 years ago
In order to have 290,000 in 10 yrs you should deposit how much each month​
never [62]

Answer:2416{APPROX}

Step-by-step explanation:

AMOUNT=290000

NO OF YEARS=10

NO OF MONTHS IN 10 YEARS=120 MONTHS.

SO AMOUNT TO DEPOSIT PER MONTH=290000/120=2416(APPROX)

7 0
3 years ago
Consider the linear and quadratic functions appearing in the figure below.
Bumek [7]

Answer:

step 2:do subtraction in the parentheses  

Step 3: distribute

Step 4: add

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
A random variable X follows the uniform distribution with a lower limit of 670 and an upper limit of 750.a. Calculate the mean a
DENIUS [597]

You can compute both the mean and second moment directly using the density function; in this case, it's

f_X(x)=\begin{cases}\frac1{750-670}=\frac1{80}&\text{for }670\le x\le750\\0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}

Then the mean (first moment) is

E[X]=\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^\infty x\,f_X(x)\,\mathrm dx=\frac1{80}\int_{670}^{750}x\,\mathrm dx=710

and the second moment is

E[X^2]=\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^\infty x^2\,f_X(x)\,\mathrm dx=\frac1{80}\int_{670}^{750}x^2\,\mathrm dx=\frac{1,513,900}3

The second moment is useful in finding the variance, which is given by

V[X]=E[(X-E[X])^2]=E[X^2]-E[X]^2=\dfrac{1,513,900}3-710^2=\dfrac{1600}3

You get the standard deviation by taking the square root of the variance, and so

\sqrt{V[X]}=\sqrt{\dfrac{1600}3}\approx23.09

8 0
3 years ago
The Pearson product-moment correlation coefficient Group of answer choices is called the Pearson c. is used when both variables
Alekssandra [29.7K]

Answer:

provides information about the strength of a relationship

Step-by-step explanation:

A numerical measure of strength in the linear relationship between any two variables is called the Pearson's product moment correlation coefficient.

The co efficient of correlation is a pure number denoted by r , independent of the units in which the variables are measured that can range from+1 to -1 .

The sign of r indicates the direction of the cor relation.

When r= 0 it does not mean that there is no relationship . For example if the observed values lie exactly on a circle , there is a relationship between variables but r = 0  as r only measure linear cor relation.

The 2nd statement given is the correct answer.

It is not related to ordinal or nominal properties and it does show direction.

6 0
3 years ago
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