Answer:
A)not negate the logical basis for trade in the Ricardian model.
Explanation:
Trade can be regarded as basic economic concept which involves the buying as well as selling of goods and services, having a compensation that is been paid by a buyer to a seller.
The Ricardian model can be regarded as model that incorporates the standard assumptions of a perfect competition. This model in it's simplest form give assumption of two countries that are producing two goods, but uses one factor of production, the goods here are usually assumed to be identical, or to be homogeneous, within as well as across countries. It should be noted that when there is higher wage, there will be greater number of workers that are willing to work and vice versa, which defined the relationship between wages and productivity. productivity gives the
measurement of how efficiently labor
is been utilized when producing goods and services.
It should be noted that If labor productivities were exactly proportional to wage levels internationally, this would not negate the logical basis for trade in the Ricardian model.
Answer:
It would sell for 761.49 dollars
Explanation:
Generally, stock prices are determined on stock market based on supply and demand mechanism. However, according to the discount dividend model present value of stock could be calculated as dividend per share/(cost of capital equity-growth rate). Growth rate between year 1 and 2 is 3-4/4 equals to -0.25%. From year 2 until year 3 it is 46-3/3 equals to 14.33%. Now we can take arithmetic average of these two and we get 7.04%( 14.33-0.25/2). Finally share could sell today for 46+3+4/(14-7.04%) equals to 761.49 dollars
Answer:
Part A. $1200
Part B. $1200
Explanation:
Part A.
Under MACRS rules, the depreciation rate for the 5 year recovery period asset would be:
Year 1 20%
Year 2 32%
Year 3 19.2%
Year 4 11.52%
Year 5 11.52%
Year 6 5.76%
This means that the first year MACRS depreciation deduction would be 20% which is $1200 ($6000 * 20%).
Part B.
If Sid does not elect Section 179 expensing then the depreciation would be calculated using straight line basis.
The depreciation would be:
Depreciaiton Expense = $6000 / 5 Years life = $1200
Answer:
The answer is
A. 26.46%
B. $5,958,354.88
Explanation:
A.
IRR = CFo/(1 + IRR)^0 + CF1/(1 + IRR)^1 + CF2/(1 + IRR)^2 + CF3/(1 + IRR)^3 + CF4/(1 + IRR)^4 + CF5/(1 + IRR)^5
CFo = -$10,000,000
CF1 = $3,000,000
CF2 = $3,500,000
CF3 = $4,000,000
CF4 = $4,900,000
CF5 = $5,000,000
Using a financial calculator;
IRR = 26.46%
B.
NPV = -CFo + CF1/(1+ r)^1 + CF2/(1 +r)^2 + CF3/(1 + r)^3 + CF4/(1 + r)^4 + CF5/(1 + r)^5
CFo = -$10,000,000
CF1 = $3,000,000
CF2 = $3,500,000
CF3 = $4,000,000
CF4 = $4,900,000
CF5 = $5,000,000
Using a financial calculator;
NPV = $5,958,354.88
Answer:
Answer is option c.
Default Risk and Liquidity Risk
Explanation:
- Default risk - because AAA and BBB differ in credit quality
- Liquidity risk - because BBB could potentially have lower liquidity than AAA bond (more stable and could be more traded)
