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never [62]
3 years ago
6

The total manufacturing cost variance is a.the flexible budget variance plus the time variance b.the difference between planned

costs and standard costs for units produced c.the difference between actual costs and standard costs for units produced d.None of these choices are correct.
Business
1 answer:
Mademuasel [1]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer to the following question will be Option C.

Explanation:

  • A Cost variance seems to be the gap and difference between the expected expenditures incurred as well as the projected regular expenditures at just the start of such a time frame.
  • Such variances have been used by administrators to assess and monitor the progress including its supply chains, expenditures as well as other activities.

⇒  Cost variance = Actual cost - Standard cost

Some other available options have no connection with the given case. So choice C seems to be the perfect solution to that.

You might be interested in
Stine Company uses a job order cost system. On May 1, the company has a balance in Work in Process Inventory of $3,920 and two j
Tanya [424]

Answer:

job 429 -WIP      3040 debit

job 430 -WIP      4020 debit

job 431 -WIP       4740 debit

factory overhead 900 debit

     raw materials             12,700 credit

--to record materials requisions--

job 429 -WIP      2,300 debit

job 430 -WIP      3,400 debit

job 431 -WIP       7,900 debit

factory overhead 1,310 debit

     wages payables            14,910 credit

--to record wages tickets--

job 429 -WIP      1,426 debit

job 430 -WIP      2,046 debit

job 431 -WIP       4,898 debit

     factory overhead            8,370 credit

--to record applied overhead--

Explanation:

job 429 -WIP:  2300 x 62% =  1,426

job 430 -WIP:  3400 x 62% = 2,046

job 431  -WIP:  7900 x 62% = 4,898

total overhead: 8,370

7 0
3 years ago
Old School Publishing Inc. began printing operations on January 1. Jobs 301 and 302 were completed during the month, and all cos
Juli2301 [7.4K]

Answer:

WIP inventory       68,000 debit

Factory Overhead   8000 debit

     Raw Materials Inventory   76,000 credit

WIP inventory         55.000 debit

Factory Overhead  12,400 debit

  Factory Payroll payable       77,400 credit

WIP inventory       31,250 debit

   Factory overhead      31,250 credit

Finished Goods Inventory 73,750 debit

           WIP inventory              73,750 credit

Explanation:

<em><u>Direct Materials used:</u></em>

10,000 + 20,000 + 24,000 + 14,000 = 68,000

<em><u>Direct Labor used:</u></em>

8,000 + 17,000 + 18,000 + 12,000 = 55,000

<u>Overhead Applied:</u>

6,000 + 12,750 + 13,500 + 9,000 = 31,250

Overhead rate:

6,000 /  8,000 =  0.75

12,750 / 17,000 =  0.75

Finished goods:

24,000 + 49,750 = 73,750

7 0
3 years ago
Scrooge, Inc. prepares adjusting entries only at the end of its fiscal year, August 31. Scrooge has the following unadjusted acc
o-na [289]

Answer:

$6,100

Explanation:

The computation of the net income is shown below:

= Service revenue in trial balance + ( unearned revenue × given percentage) - (rent expense in trial balance) + ( Prepaid rent × 2 months ÷ 12 months) - (wages expense in trial balance + adjusted trial balance)

= $5,000 + ($4,000 × 80%) - ($800 + $3,600 × 2 months ÷ 12 months - ($600 + $100)

= $5,000 + $3,200 - $1,400 - $700

= $6,100

4 0
3 years ago
As of December 31, 2015, Juneau Company had total cash of $155,000, notes payable of $85,600, and common stock of $52,400. Durin
Illusion [34]

Answer:

ending RE 30,000

Explanation:

Using the acounting equation we solve for the beginning RE

<em>Assets = liab + equity</em>

155,000 = 85,600 + 52,400 + Retained Earnings

155,000 - 85,600 - 52,400 = <em>17,000</em>

beginning RE 17,000

net income

revenues 36,000 - 20,000 expenses = 16,000

dividends: 3,000

ending RE: 17,000 + 16,000 - 3,000 = 30,000

6 0
3 years ago
According to the simple monetary model, if money is growing at 5% in the United States and 6% in the United Kingdom, while real
Murrr4er [49]

Answer:

A)

Since the money supply is growing at a much faster rate than real GDP in the US, this means that the inflation rate in the US will be higher than the inflation rate in the UK. In both countries the money supply is growing at a faster rate, but the difference in the US is larger (money supply is growing 67% faster that real GDP), while the money supply in the UK is growing 20% faster than real GDP.  

This means that the US dollar should depreciate against the British pound.

B)

If you have US dollars, then you should increase your investments in the UK because the pound will be worth more US dollars in the future.

C)

More American goods should be exported to the UK, and less British goods should be imported to the US. Since the US dollar should be cheaper, American products are cheaper. The opposite will happen to British products.

7 0
2 years ago
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