Answer:
Option C is the correct answer.
<u>Debit Depletion Expense $1,358,500; credit Accumulated Depletion $1,358,500.</u>
Explanation:
Fortune Drilling Company acquires a mineral deposit at a cost of $5,900,000. It incurs additional costs of $600,000 to access the deposit, which is estimated to contain 2,000,000 tons and is expected to take 5 years to extract. Compute the depletion expense for the first year assuming 418,000 tons were mined.
Depletion expense = ( Mineral Deposit Cost + Additional cost)/ Estimate Extraction * N0 of ton extracted in first year
Depletion expense = (5900000 + 600000)/2000000 * 418000
Depletion expense = $ 1,358,500
Answer:
the unemployment rate rises.
Explanation:
Gross domestic product is the total sum of final goods and services produced in an economy within a given period which is usually a year
GDP calculated using the expenditure approach = Consumption spending by households + Investment spending by businesses + Government spending + Net export
Potential GDP is the GDP of an economy when labour and capital are employed at their sustainable rate.
Real GDP has been adjusted for inflation. It reflects the value of goods and services produced in an economy.
When the real GDP of an economy grows more slowly than potential GDP, it means that the resources in the economy, labour and capital are not employed at their sustainable rate. This is referred to as output gap. As a result of the output gap, the unemployment level rises
Answer:
Depreciation for year 3 = $115518
BV = $57798
Explanation:
The modified accelerated cost recovery method employees a classification-based approach to depreciating certain assets, once classified are assigned respective rates of depreciation. for example, assets classified under automobiles, trucks and machinery are treated under 5-year MACRS and will be depreciated at 20%, 32%, 19.2% and so on.
In this question the bridge across Rio Grande being built by Del Norte Brick co is treated under 3-year MACRS, for which the rates are as follows:
33.33% for the first year
44.45% 2nd year
14.81% 3rd year
7.41% 4th year
We have been asked to determine 3rd years' depreciation and book value, determined as follows:
Depreciation year 1: $780000 33.33% = $259974
Depreciation year 2: $780000 44.45% = $346710
Depreciation year 3: $780000 14.81% = $115518
So the depreciation for year 3 = $115518
The book value is calculated as follows:
<em>Book value = cost - accumulated depreciation</em>
BV = $780000 - $722202
BV = $57798
If there is an insufficient contribution margin to cover fixed expenses, there will always be an occurrence of a net loss.
<h3>What is a Contribution Margin?</h3>
The contribution margin can be expressed in gross income terms. After subtracting the variable element of the firm's expenditures, it indicates the extra money gained for each product sold.
The contribution margin is calculated by subtracting the selling price/unit from the variable cost/unit.
This metric displays how much a certain product adds to the company's total earnings. It displays the share of revenue that helps to pay the firm's fixed costs and gives one approach to illustrate the profit potential of a certain product supplied by a company.
Therefore, If there is an insufficient contribution margin to cover fixed expenses, there will always be an occurrence of a net loss.
Learn more about contribution margin here:
brainly.com/question/24881206
Answer:
A. if the extra interest cost of borrowing long-term is less than the expected cost of rising interest rates before it retires its debt.
