Answer:
40
Step-by-step explanation:
2% of 400 is 8
400 x 0.02 = 8
10% of 400 is 40
Take derivitive
note
the derivitive of sec(x)=sec(x)tan(x)
so
remember the quotient rule
the derivitive of

so
the derivitive of
so now evaluate when t=pi
we get
sec(pi)=-1
tan(pi)=0
we get

slope=1/pi
use slope point form
for
slope=m and point is (x1,y1)
equation is
y-y1=m(x-x1)
slope is 1/pi
point is (pi,1/pi)
y-1/π=1/π(x-π)
times both sides by π
πy-1=x-π
πy=x-π+1
y=(1/π)x-1+(1/π)
or, alternately
-(1/π)x+y=(1/π)-1
x-πy=π-1
The best estimate for this correlation would be B) 0.9.
We can see that the number is constantly going up, which would throw out the D answer.
We can also see that for every time the x goes up 1, the y goes up a little less than one. We can see that in the ordered pairs that exist on the graph such as (3, 2), (8, 6) and (2.1, 1.9).
Since the y values are just lower than the x, the correlation would be just under one. Therefore, 0.9 is an accurate estimation.