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ipn [44]
3 years ago
10

McElroy, Inc., produces a single model of a popular cell phone in large quantities. A single cell phone moves through two depart

ments, assembly and testing. The manufacturing costs in the assembly department during March follow:
Direct materials $187,500
Conversion costs 163,800
$351,300

The assembly department has no beginning Work-in-Process Inventory. During the month, it started 30,000 cell phones, but only 26,000 were fully completed and transferred to the testing department. All parts had been made and placed in the remaining 4,000 cell phones, but only 50% of the conversion had been completed. The company uses the weighted-average method of process costing to accumulate product costs.

Required:
a. Compute the equivalent units and cost per equivalent unit for March in the assembly department.
b. Compute the costs of units completed and transferred to the testing department.
c. Compute the costs of the ending work-in-process.
Business
1 answer:
Tema [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Part a.

Equivalent units : Materials = 30,000 units ,Conversion Costs = 28,000 units

Cost per equivalent unit : Materials = $6.25 Conversion Costs = $5.85

Part b.

$314,600

Part c.

$36,700

Explanation:

Step 1  : Equivalent units

<u>Materials</u>

Units Completed and Transferred (26,000 x 100 %)  26,000

Units in Ending Work in Process (4,000 x 100%)          4,000

Equivalent units with respect to Materials                  30,000

<u>Conversion Costs</u>

Units Completed and Transferred (26,000 x 100 %)  26,000

Units in Ending Work in Process (4,000 x 50%)           2,000

Equivalent units with respect to Materials                  28,000

Step 2 : Cost per equivalent unit

Materials = $187,500 ÷  30,000 = $6.25

Conversion Costs = $163,800 ÷ 28,000 = $5.85

Total unit cost = $6.25 + $5.85 = $12.10

Step 3 : Costs of units completed and transferred to the testing department

Costs of units completed and transferred = 26,000 x $12.10 = $314,600

Step 4 : Costs of the ending work-in-process

Costs of the ending work-in-process = 4,000 x $6.25 + 2,000 x $5.85 = $36,700

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Consider the following two mutually exclusive projects: Year Cash Flow (A) Cash Flow (B) 0 –$419,000 –$37,000 1 47,000 19,800 2
allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

a. The payback period for project A=3.44 years, and the payback period for project B=2.21 years.

b. Net present value for project A=$78,560.951, and the Net present value for project B=$11,694.239

c. IRR  for Project A= 16.57% and IRR for Project B=25.72%

d. Probability index (P.I) for Project A=1.187 and the Probability index (P.I) for Project B=1.316

e. The final decision should be based on the NPV since it doesn't have the ranking problem that is usually associated with other capital budgeting techniques. I would choose Project A since it has a higher Net Present Value (NPV) as compared to Project B.

Explanation:

                   PROJECT A                 PROJECT B

Year            Cash flow                     Cash flow

0.                 $419,000                      $37,000

1.                  $47,000                       $19,800

2.                 $59,000                       $13,900

3.                 $76,000                        $15,600

4.                 $534,000                      $12,400

a.

The payback period for Project A can be determined as follows;

The cash flows at Year 0 represent the initial investment to the project. The payback period is the number of years it will take until the return on the project is equal to the initial investment. This can be calculated as shown;

419,000-(47,000+59,000+76,000)

=419,000-182,000=$237,000

After 3 years, the total cash flow will be=$182,000 which is still $237,000 less from the initial investment. Determine the number of months in the fourth year that it will take to cover the remainder;

(237,000/534,000)=0.44 years

Total number of years=3+0.44=3.44 years

The payback period for project A=3.44 years

The payback period for Project B can be determined as follows;

37,000-(19,800+13,900)

=37,000-33,700=$3,300

After 2 years, the total cash flow will be=$33,700 which is still $3,300 less from the initial investment. Determine the number of months in the third year that it will take to cover the remainder;

(3,300/15,600)=0.21 years

Total number of years=2+0.21=2.21 years

The payback period for project B=2.21 years

b.

Net present value for project A is;

NPV=-419,000+{47,000/(1+0.11)}+{59,000/((1+0.11)^2)}+{76,000/((1+0.11)^3)}+534,000/((1+0.11)^4)=-419,000+(42,342.342+47,885.724+55,570.545+351,762.340=$42,378,560.61

Net present value for project A=$78,560.951

Net present value for project B is;

NPV=-37,000+{19,800/(1+0.11)}+{13,900/((1+0.11)^2)}+{15,600/((1+0.11)^3)}+12,400/((1+0.11)^4)=-37,000+(17,837.837+11,281.552+11,406.586+8,168.264=$11,694.239

Net present value for project B=$11,694.239

c.

The IRR for each project A is:

$419,000 = $47,000 / (1 + IRR) + $59,000 / (1 + IRR)^2 + $76,000 / (1 + IRR)^3 + $534,000 / (1 + IRR)^4

Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:

IRR = 16.57%

The IRR for each project B is:

$37,000 = $19,800 / (1 + IRR) + $13,900 / (1 + IRR)^2 + $15,600 / (1 + IRR)^3 + $12,400 / (1 + IRR)^4

Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:

IRR = 25.72%

d.

Probability index (P.I) for Project A;

P.I=[{47,000/(1+0.11)}+{59,000/((1+0.11)^2)}+{76,000/((1+0.11)^3)}+534,000/((1+0.11)^4)]/419,000=(42,342.342+47,885.724+55,570.545+351,762.340=1.187

The Probability index (P.I) for Project A=1.187

Probability index (P.I) for Project B;

[{19,800/(1+0.11)}+{13,900/((1+0.11)^2)}+{15,600/((1+0.11)^3)}+12,400/((1+0.11)^4)]/37,000=(17,837.837+11,281.552+11,406.586+8,168.264=1.316

The Probability index (P.I) for Project B=1.316

e.

The final decision should be based on the NPV since it doesn't have the ranking problem that is usually associated with other capital budgeting techniques. I would choose Project A since it has a higher Net Present Value (NPV) as compared to Project B.

4 0
3 years ago
All societies face a trade-off between equality and efficiency.If the United States government lowers the income taxes on the we
xenn [34]

Answer: Decrease in efficiency and decrease in equality in the united states.

Explanation: In economics the situation in which one thing cannot be improved without the other thing being hurt is called efficiency. Decreasing tax on wealthy and decreasing welfare payments will both result in decrease in efficiency in the economy as well as decreasing the equality as the wealthy will have more to save and consume and the poor ones living standard will decline further.

4 0
4 years ago
Which accounting method correctly reflects the results in finacial statements
Artist 52 [7]

The accounting method that correctly reflects financial statement results is <u>Accrual accounting.</u>

<h3>What is accrual accounting?</h3><h3 />

This is a type of accounting that takes into account the various transactions that the business goes through even those that are not cash-based.

This will therefore accurately reflect the results of the financial statement because business get involved in non-cash transactions as well as cash transactions.

Find out more on accrual-based accounting at brainly.com/question/25817056.

#SPJ12

3 0
2 years ago
Bamp Co. has net income of $48,200, sales of $947,100, a capital intensity ratio of .87, and an equity multiplier of 1.53. What
vodomira [7]

Answer:

Option C is correct (8.95%)

Return on equity is 8.95%

Explanation:

Option C is correct (8.95%)

Return on Equity:

It is the measure of how well company is making profit in relation to stock holder equity.

General Formula formula for return on equity is:

ROE= Net Income/Shareholder Equity

In our Case:

Formula will become:

ROE=\frac{Net\ Income}{Sales*Capital\ Intensity\ Ratio}* Equity\ Multiplier

Net Income= $48,200

Sales=$ 947,100

capital intensity ratio=0.87

equity multiplier=1.53

ROE=\frac{\$48,200}{\$947,100*0.87}*1.53\\ROE=0.08950\\ROE=8.95\%

Return on equity is 8.95%

4 0
4 years ago
Capitalizing the cash cost of a piece of equipment is.
ANTONII [103]

Answer:

converting it to an asset on the balance sheet.

Explanation:

Capitalizing a cost means converting it to an asset on the balance sheet. For example, if a company pays $10,000 in cash for piece of equipment, its financial statements don't show that it "spent" $10,000. Rather, they show that it converted $10,000 worth of cash into $10,000 worth of equipment, an asset.

6 0
3 years ago
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