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andrew-mc [135]
2 years ago
7

Kendra ordered a set of blue and brown pins. She received 100 pins, and 30% of them were blue. How many blue pins did Kendra rec

eive?
Mathematics
2 answers:
natka813 [3]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

30 blue pins

Step-by-step explanation:

30% is the same as 30 out of 100, so this can be written in this fraction: \frac{30}{100}

now, you should multiply this fraction by the total number of pins she ordered:

100 x \frac{30}{100}

to solve this, you can simplify by dividing 100 by 100, this equals 1

30 times 1 is 30

there are 30 blue pins

pav-90 [236]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

30 hair pins were blue

Step-by-step explanation:

100 x 0.3 =  30

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Marina86 [1]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

5x+2-2x+2=3x+4

5x-2x+2+2=3x+4

3x+4=3x+4

equation is satisfied so every value of x will produce the same results on both sides of the equation

6 0
3 years ago
25x-10x²/-15x³ -5x plss helpp
r-ruslan [8.4K]

Assuming it's factorization/simplify

\frac{25x-10x^2}{-15x^3-5x} \\\frac{5x(5-2x)}{-5x(3x^2+1)} \\\frac{5x(5-2x)}{-5x(3x^2+1)} \\-\frac{(5-2x)}{(3x^2+1)} \\-\frac{(-2x+5)}{(3x^2+1)} \\\frac{2x-5}{3x^2+1} \\

If you have any questions, feel free to ask.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Samples of rejuvenated mitochondria are mutated (defective) in 1% of cases. Suppose 18 samples are studied, and they can be cons
Temka [501]

Probability that no samples are mutated is 0.83, probability that at most one sample is mutated is 0.9812 and probability that more than half the samples are mutated is 0.

Given percentage of rejuvenated mitochondria defective is 1%, and sample size is 18.

Binomial distribution is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials and X can have two outcomes.

P(X=x)=C_{n,x} p^{x}(1-p)^{n-x}

percentage of defective rejuvendated mitochondria=1%

p=0.01

Sample size=18

n=18

a) No samples are mutated

This means P(X=0)=C_{18,0}(0.01)^{0} (0.99)^{18}

=0.83

b) At most one sample is mutated.

P(X<=1)=P(X=0)+P(X=1)

so,

P(X=0)=C_{18,0} (0.01)^{0}  (0.99)^{18}

=0.83

P(X=1)=C_{18,1}(0.01)^{1} (0.99)^{17}=

=0.1512

P(X<=1)=0.83+0.1512

=0.9812

c) More than half the samples are mutated.

P(X>9)=P(X=10)+P(X=11)+P(X=12)+P(X=13)+P(X=14)+P(X=15)+P(X=16)+P(X=17)+P(X=18)

Using two decimals digits precision all will be 0.

Hence Probability that no samples are mutated is 0.83, probability that at most one sample is mutated is 0.9812 and probability that more than half the samples are mutated is 0.

Learn more about probability at brainly.com/question/24756209

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4 0
2 years ago
4X-3 (x²+2x)<br> Find (f-g) (4)
Helen [10]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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(4x-3) - (x^2 +2x)

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radius = (4*10^2 + 24^2)/8*10 =

(400 + 576)/80=

976/80 = 12.2

diameter = 12.2 x 2 = 24.4

4 0
3 years ago
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